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NEW QUESTION 947
Which two statements about normal-range VLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    You can delete VLANs 1002 through 1005 in transparent mode only.
B.    The vlan.dat file is stored in RAM and copied to the NVRAM when you save the configuration.
C.    Configurations are saved in the vlan.dat file.
D.    You can add, modify, and remove configurations in VTP server mode and VTP client mode.
E.    You can add VLANs in VTP server mode.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 948
Which three statements about extended VLANs are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The lowest extended VLAN number is 1006.
B.    The lowest extended VLAN number is 1002.
C.    Any VLAN ID can be used as an extended VLAN.
D.    They are recognized only by VTP version 3.
E.    They are propagated by VTP by default.
F.    They require the extended system ID to be enabled on the device.

Answer: ADF

NEW QUESTION 949
Which command must be configured on the physical ports of a Layer 3 EtherChannel?

A.    ip address <subnet mask>
B.    switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
C.    no switchport
D.    switchport mode access

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 950
Which feature can you enable on your network to most effectively limit unknown traffic?

A.    DHCP packet rate limiting
B.    unicast storm control
C.    multicast storm control
D.    broadcast storm control
E.    ARP packet rate limiting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 951
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    All outgoing traffic without a VLAN tag is tagged with the native VLAN.
B.    All untagged traffic that arrives on the device is placed into the native VLAN.
C.    The VLAN tag is stripped from all incoming traffic that matches the native VLAN.
D.    They are propagated through VTP.
E.    The default native VLAN is VLAN 11.
F.    All incoming traffic that matches the native VLAN is dropped at the switch.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 952
Which two TLVs are mandatory in LLDP advertisements? (Choose two.)

A.    Platform TLV
B.    System Capability TLV
C.    Network Policy TLV
D.    System Name TLV
E.    Native VLAN TLV

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 953
Which statement about the connection of two switches with several links using LACP link aggregation on IOS is true?

A.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is off.
B.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is on.
C.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is active.
D.    By default, when an LACP channel is configured, the LACP channel mode is passive.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 954
Which two statements about configuring a voice VLAN on a switch port are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The port must be operating in untrusted mode.
B.    Tagged traffic is not supported.
C.    It must be configured separately from the VLAN that carries data traffic.
D.    If the port is trusted, data traffic that passes through the Cisco IP Phone maintains its QoS values.
E.    The port must be operating in trusted mode.
F.    Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled on the switch port.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 955
Which statement about SPAN functionality for an EtherChannel group is true?

A.    It can be configured as a SPAN source or a SPAN destination port.
B.    It can be configured as a SPAN source but not as a SPAN destination port.
C.    It can be configured as a SPAN destination but not as a SPAN source port.
D.    It cannot be configured as a SPAN source or a SPAN destination port.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 956
How does the Spanning Tree Protocol determine path cost?

A.    interface hop count
B.    interface reliability
C.    interface bandwidth
D.    interface load
E.    interface delay

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 957
Drag and Drop

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 958
If EtherChannel guard is configured on a device, which result happens when the device detects a misconfiguration on a connected device?

A.    Spanning tree is disabled for the VLANs associated with the EtherChannel.
B.    The port generates a syslog message.
C.    The EtherChannel configuration is removed from the running configuration of the device.
D.    The port is error disabled.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 959
Which two options are benefits of using VSS for chassis virtualization? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports GLBP to balance VSS traffic.
B.    It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support.
C.    It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches.
D.    It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency.
E.    It requires only one gateway per VLAN.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 960
What happens if an interface within channel group is configured as SPAN destination?

A.    Portchannel will forward traffic to source SPAN.
B.    It will not be operational.
C.    The link will be in error-disable.
D.    The interface will be removed from the channel group.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 961
Which feature is new in RPVST+?

A.    BackboneFast is implemented.
B.    UplinkFast is implemented.
C.    Only the root bridge sends configuration BPDUs.
D.    All ports can generate and send BPDUs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 962
……


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NEW QUESTION 740
Which types of LSAs are present in the stub area?

A.    LSA type 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B.    LSA type 1, 2 and 3
C.    LSA type 3 and 5
D.    LSA type 1 and 2

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 741
Which action is the most efficient way to handle route feedback when converting a RIPv2 network to OSPF?

A.    Implement route tags.
B.    Implement IP prefix lists.
C.    Implement route maps with access lists.
D.    Implement distribute lists.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 742
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites, but no OSPF adjacencies come up. Which two actions are solutions for this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    router#show memory allocating-process table
B.    router#show memory dead
C.    router#show memory processor statistics
D.    router#show memory summary
E.    router#show memory events

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 743
Which statements best describes the following two OSPF commands, which are used to summarize routes?
area 0 range 192.168.110.0 255.255.0.0
summary-address 192.168.110.0 255.255.0.0

A.    The area range command defines the area where the network resides.
The summary-address command enables autosummanzation.
B.    The area range command defines the area where the network resides.
The summary-address command summanzes a subnet for all areas.
C.    The area range command specifies the area where the subnet resides and summarizes it to other areas.
The summary-address command summarizes external routes.
D.    The area range command summarizes subnets for a specific area.
The summary-address command summaries a subnet for all areas.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 744
Which two actions are common methods for migrating a network from one protocol to another? (Choose two.)

A.    redistributing routes from the current routing protocol to the new routing protocol
B.    removing the current routing protocol and implementing the new routing protocol
C.    changing the relative administrative distances of the two routing protocols
D.    changing the network IP addresses and bringing up the new IP addresses using the new routing protocol
E.    disabling IP routing globally and implementing the new routing protocol

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 745
A network administrator is attempting to configure IP SLA to allow one time stamp to be logged when a packet arrives on the interface and one time stamp to be logged when a packet leaves the interface. Which IP SLA accuracy tool enables this functionality?

A.    Trap
B.    RTT
C.    Responder
D.    Trigger

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 746
Which two types of traffic can benefit from LLQ? (Choose two.)

A.    email
B.    voice
C.    telnet
D.    video
E.    file transfer

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 747
Refer to the exhibit:
access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list deny any
Which command us used to control the type of routes that are processed in incoming route updates?

A.    passive-interface
B.    distribute-list 1 out
C.    distribute-list 1 in
D.    ip vrf forwarding

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 748
A network engineer is configuring two dedicated Internet connections within the Internet module. One connection is the primary connection to all wired business communications, while the other is the primary connection for all customer wireless traffic. If one of the links goes down, the affected traffic needs to be redirected to the redundant link. Which current technology should be deployed to monitor the scenario?

A.    IP SLA
B.    MMC
C.    IP SAA
D.    PBR

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 749
Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)

A.    IPsec encryption not supported with statically addressed spokes.
B.    It requires full-mesh connectivity on the network.
C.    It uses NHRP to create a mapping database of spoke addresses.
D.    Multicast traffic is not supported.
E.    It supports dynamic addresses for spokes in a hub-and-spoke VPN topology.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 750
Which two LSA types were introduced to support OSPF for IPv6? (Choose two.)

A.    type 9
B.    type 10
C.    type 5
D.    type 7
E.    type 8

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 751
Users were moved from the local DHCP server to the remote corporate DHCP server. After the move, none of the users were able to use the network. Which two issues will prevent this setup from working properly? (Choose two.)

A.    Auto-QoS is blocking DHCP traffic.
B.    The DHCP server IP address configuration is missing locally.
C.    802.1X is blocking DHCP traffic.
D.    The broadcast domain is too large for proper DHCP propagation.
E.    The route to the new DHCP server is missing.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 752
Refer to the exhibit:
Router# show processes cpu sorted
Router# show processes memory sorted
Based on Cisco best practice, which statement about the output is true?

A.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before allocating additional memory and CPU usage to processes on an IOS router in production.
B.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing any configuration commands on an IOS router in production.
C.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing any debug commands on an IOS router in production.
D.    The output should be analyzed by a network engineer before executing other show commands on an IOS router in production.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 753
……


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NEW QUESTION 381
Users have been reporting unusual automated phone calls, including names and phone numbers, that appear to come from devices internal to the company. What of the following should the systems administrators do to BEST address this problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Add an ACL to the Firewall to block VoIP.
B.    Change the settings on the phone system to use SIP-TLS.
C.    Have the phones download new configuration over TFTP.
D.    Enable QoS configuration on the phone VLAN.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 382
A network engineer is upgrading the network perimeter and installing a new firewall, IDS, and external edge router. The IDS is reporting elevated UDP traffic and the Internal Routers are reporting high utilization. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A.    Reconfigure the firewall to block external UDP traffic.
B.    Establish a security baseline on the IDS.
C.    Block echo reply traffic at the firewall.
D.    Modify the edge router to not forward broadcast traffic

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 383
An engineer needs to provide access to company resources for several offshore contractors. The contractors require:
– Access to a number of applications, including internal websites.
– Access to database data and the ability to manipulate it.
– The ability to log into Linux and Windows servers remotely.
Which of the following remote access technologies are the BEST choices to provide all of this access securely? (Choose two.)

A.    VTC
B.    VRRP
C.    VLAN
D.    VDI
E.    VPN
F.    Telnet

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 384
An administrator has noticed mobile devices from an adjacent company on the corporate wireless network. Malicious activity is being reported from those devices. To add another layer of security in an enterprise environment an administrator wants to add contextual authentication to allow users to access enterprise resources only while present in corporate buildings. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?

A.    Port security.
B.    Rogue device detection
C.    Bluetooth
D.    GPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 385
A security consultant is improving the physical security of a sensitive site and takes pictures of the unbranded building to include in the report. Two weeks later, the security consultant misplaces the phone, which only has one hour of charge left on it. The person who finds the phone removes the MicroSD card in an attempt to discover the owner to return it. The person extracts the following data from the phone and EXIF data from some files:
– DCIM images folder
– Audio books folder
– Torrents
– My TAN xls file
– Consultancy HR Manual doc file
– Camera: SM-G950F
– Exposure time: 1/60 s
– Location: 3500 Lacey Road USA
Which of the following BEST describes the security problem?

A.    MicroSD is not encrypted and also contains personal data.
B.    MicroSD contains a mixture of personal and work data.
C.    MicroSD is nor encrypted and contains geotagging information.
D.    MicroSD contains pirated software and is not encrypted.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 386
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated that all web-based applications the company uses are required to be hosted on the newest stable operating systems and application stack. Additionally, a monthly report must be generated and provided to the audit department. Which of the following security tools should a security analyst use to provide the BEST information?

A.    Protocol analyzer
B.    Network enumerator
C.    Penetration testing platform
D.    Vulnerability scanner
E.    GRC software

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 387
During the deployment of a new system, the implementation team determines that APIs used to integrate the new system with a legacy system are not functioning properly. Further investigation shows there is a misconfigured encryption algorithm used to secure data transfers between systems. Which of the following should the project manager use to determine the source of the defined algorithm in use?

A.    Code repositories.
B.    Security requirements traceability matrix.
C.    Software development life cycle.
D.    Data design diagram.
E.    Roles matrix.
F.    Implementation guide.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 388
As part of an organization’s compliance program, administrators must complete a hardening checklist and note any potential improvements. The process of noting potential improvements in the checklist is MOST likely driven by ____.

A.    the collection of data as part of the continuous monitoring program
B.    adherence to policies associated with incident response
C.    the organization’s software development life cycle
D.    changes in operating systems or industry trends

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 389
A protect manager is working with a team that is tasked to develop software applications in a structured environment and host them in a vendor’s cloud-based Infrastructure. The organization will maintain responsibility for the software but wit not manage the underlying server applications. Which of the following does the organization plan to leverage?

A.    SaaS
B.    PaaS
C.    IaaS
D.    Hybrid cloud
E.    Network virtualization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 390
A security engineer has been hired to design a device that will enable the exfiltration of data from within a well-defended network perimeter ding an authorized test. The device must bypass all firewalls and NIDS place as well as allow in the upload of commands from a cent, allied command and control server. The total cost of the deuce must be kept to a minimum in case the device is discovered doing an assessment. Which of the following tools should the engineer load onto the device being designed?

A.    Custom firmware with routing key generation.
B.    Automatic MITM proxy.
C.    TCP beacon broadcast software.
D.    Reverse shell endpoint listener.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 391
A security incident responder discovers an attacker has gained access to a network and has overwritten key system files with backdoor software. The server was reimaged and patched offline. Which of the following tools should be implemented to detect similar attacks?

A.    Vulnerability scanner
B.    TPM
C.    Host-based firewall
D.    File integrity monitor
E.    NIPS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 392
The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict Pll security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used?

A.    Avoid
B.    Mitigate
C.    Transfer
D.    Accept

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 393
……


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NEW QUESTION 400
You are planning to create a virtual network that has a scale set that contains six virtual machines (VMs). A monitoring solution on a different network will need access to the VMs inside the scale set. You need to define public access to the VMs.
Solution: Use Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to the VM in the scale set.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Public IP addresses are necessary because they provide the load balanced entry point for the virtual machines in the scale set. The public IP address will route traffic to the appropriate virtual machines in the scale set.
https://mitra.computa.asia/articles/msdn-virtual-machine-scale-sets-it-really-about-protecting-your-applications-performance

NEW QUESTION 401
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure Express Route has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to analyze the data at a higher level. Note: You can install and configure the Operations Management Suite (OMS) and Dependency Agents on all VMs. Use the Wire Data solution in Azure Log Analytics to analyze the network traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-wire-data

NEW QUESTION 402
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure Function to run the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
It is better to run the legacy application in a VM.

NEW QUESTION 403
Your company uses Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) to secure several Azure App Service Web and API applications. The applications are used by company employees and allow single sign-on (SSO). The applications must allow external users to sign-in. The external users must be managed the same way as employees and allow the external users to be added to the same employee user groups. You need to enable the external user sign-in. What should you do?

A.    Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the “Enable single sign on” option.
B.    Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use pass-through authentication and select the “Enable single sign-on” option.
C.    Enable and configure Azure AD business-to-consumer (B2C) Multi-Factor Authentication.
D.    Enable and configure Azure AD business-to-business (B2B) collaboration.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure AD B2C supports single sign-on. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) B2C integrates directly with Azure Multi-Factor Authentication so that you can add a second layer of security to sign-up and sign-in experiences in your consumer-facing applications.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-b2c/active-directory-b2c-reference-mfa

NEW QUESTION 404
A company runs virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. Some VMs are hosted in a virtual network in the West Central US region. Other VMs are hosted in a virtual network in the West US 2 region. Each virtual network has its own IP address range. The virtual networks are not integrated. You need to ensure that databases in the virtual networks can replicate data from one region to the other. The solution must minimize effort required. Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Implement virtual network peering.
B.    Migrate the database to Azure SQL Database.
C.    Create ExpressRoute connections to each virtual network.
D.    Configure database replication for the databases.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Active geo-replication is Azure SQL Database feature that allows you to create readable replicas of your database in the same or different data center (region).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-geo-replication-overview

NEW QUESTION 405
You are designing a live streaming event by using Azure Media Services. The delivery of the video will use HTTP Live Streaming (HLS) to an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) streaming endpoint. Viewers of the content may not be a trusted party and you require the highest level of security. You must secure the media delivery by using dynamic encryption.
Solution: Use AES-128 dynamic encryption and the key delivery service to encrypt all assets with an associated encryption key and authorization policy. Configure the assert’s delivery policy to deliver by using Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use Azure Media Services to secure your media from the time it leaves your computer through storage, processing, and delivery. With Media Services, you can deliver your live and on-demand content encrypted dynamically with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-128) or any of the three major digital rights management (DRM) systems: Microsoft PlayReady, Google Widevine, and Apple FairPlay.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/media-services/previous/media-services-content-protection-overview

NEW QUESTION 406
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Design a solution based on VM scale sets.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Automation State Configuration.

NEW QUESTION 407
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Design a solution that deploys a unique Azure Resource Manager template for each VM and copy the appropriate web apps. Create the required number of VMs.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Automation State Configuration. Note: With Resource Manager, you can create a template (in JSON format) that defines the infrastructure and configuration of your Azure solution. By using a template, you can repeatedly deploy your solution throughout its lifecycle and have confidence your resources are deployed in a consistent state. When you create a solution from the portal, the solution automatically includes a deployment template. You don’t have to create your template from scratch because you can start with the template for your solution and customize it to meet your specific needs.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-overview

NEW QUESTION 408
A company has 100 Web servers running Windows Server on virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. All servers have IIS enabled. Each server runs a unique combination of web apps. Servers must not run unnecessary services. The servers must be checked every 30 minutes to remove any additional Windows features and correct exceptions. You need to design the solution with the least amount of effort and without downtime.
Solution: Use Azure Automation DSC.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Automation State Configuration is an Azure service that allows you to write, manage, and compile PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) configurations, import DSC Resources, and assign configurations to target nodes, all in the cloud.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-overview

NEW QUESTION 409
Your company is developing an e-commerce Azure App Service Web App to support hundreds of restaurant locations around the world. You are designing the messaging solution architecture to support the e-commerce transactions and messages. The e-commerce application has the following features and requirements:

You need to design a solution for the Inventory Distribution feature. Which Azure service should you use?

A.    Azure Event Hub
B.    Azure Service Bus
C.    Azure Event Grid
D.    Azure Relay

Answer: B
Explanation:
Service Bus is intended for traditional enterprise applications. These enterprise applications require transactions, ordering, duplicate detection, and instantaneous consistency. Service Bus enables cloud-native applications to provide reliable state transition management for business processes.
Incorrect:
Not A: Azure Event Hubs is a big data pipeline. It facilitates the capture, retention, and replay of telemetry and event stream data.
Not C: Event Grid is an eventing backplane that enables event-driven, reactive programming.
Not D: The Azure Relay service enables you to securely expose services that run in your corporate network to the public cloud.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/compare-messaging-services

NEW QUESTION 410
A company uses Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) to manage 1,000 virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. The security officer reports that VMs often are not updated. You recommend to the company that they implement the OMS Update Management solution. You need to describe the OMS Update Management solution to the company. Which functionality does the OMS Update Management solution provide?

A.    assessment of Windows and Linux updates on the VMs
B.    alerts regarding VM issues
C.    overview of network activity on the VMs
D.    deployment of required updates to VMs

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Update Management solution in Azure automation allows you to manage operating system updates for your Windows and Linux computers deployed in Azure, on-premises environments, or other cloud providers. You can quickly assess the status of available updates on all agent computers and manage the process of installing required updates for servers. Note: After updates are assessed for all the Linux and Windows computers in your workspace, you can install required updates by creating an update deployment. An update deployment is a scheduled installation of required updates for one or more computers.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/operations-management-suite/oms-solution-update-management

NEW QUESTION 411
You manage an application instance. The application consumes data from multiple databases. Application code references database tables using a combination of the server, database, and table name. You need to migrate the application instance to Azure. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    SQL Server Stretch Database
B.    SQL Server in an Azure virtual machine
C.    SQL Managed Instance
D.    Azure SQL Database

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: SQL Server Stretch Database lets you dynamically stretch warm and cold transactional data from Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to Microsoft Azure. Access SQL Server data if it’s on-premises or stretched to the cloud. You set policy that determines where data is stored and SQL Server moves the data in the background for you. The table is online and ready to query, and you don’t have to change existing queries or applications–it’s completely transparent.
C: Managed Instance allows existing SQL Server customers to lift and shift their on-premises applications to the cloud with minimal application and database changes. At the same time, Managed Instance preserves all PaaS capabilities (automatic patching and version updates, automated backups, high-availability), that drastically reduces management overhead and TCO.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/sql-server-stretch-database/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 412
You are designing a security solution for a company’s web application. You need to secure the web application by using Web Application Firewall (WAF). For which three types of attacks will the solution protect? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    zero-day exploits
B.    SQL injection
C.    DOS attacks
D.    cross-site scripting attacks
E.    DDOS attacks

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
Web Application Firewall features include:
– SQL injection protection
– Cross site scripting protection
– Common Web Attacks Protection such as command injection, HTTP request smuggling, HTTP response splitting, and remote file inclusion attack
– Protection against HTTP protocol violations
– Protection against HTTP protocol anomalies such as missing host user-agent and accept headers
– Prevention against bots, crawlers, and scanners
– Detection of common application misconfigurations (that is, Apache, IIS, etc.)
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/waf-overview

NEW QUESTION 413
You are designing a live streaming event by using Azure Media Services. The delivery of the video will use HTTP Live Streaming (HLS) to an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) streaming endpoint. Viewers of the content may not be a trusted party and you require the highest level of security. You must secure the media delivery by using dynamic encryption.
Solution: Use Azure Storage Service Encryption to encrypt all assets with an encryption key and authorization policy. Configure the asset’s delivery policy to deliver by using Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use Azure Media Services to secure your media from the time it leaves your computer through storage, processing, and delivery. With Media Services, you can deliver your live and on-demand content encrypted dynamically with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-128) or any of the three major digital rights management (DRM) systems: Microsoft PlayReady, Google Widevine, and Apple FairPlay.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/media-services/previous/media-services-content-protection-overview

NEW QUESTION 414
A company deploys Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to synchronize identity information from their on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, credential hashes for authentication (password sync), and group memberships. The company plans to deploy several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs) to support their applications. The VMs have the following requirements:
– Support domain join, LDAP read, LDAP bind, NTLM and Kerberos authentication, and Group Policy.
– Allow users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials and connect remotely to the VM by using Remote Desktop.
You need to support the VM deployment. Which service should you use?

A.    Active Directory Federation Services (AS FS)
B.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
C.    Azure AD Domain Services
D.    Azure AD Managed Service Identity

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure AD Domain Services provides managed domain services such as domain join, group policy, LDAP, Kerberos/NTLM authentication that are fully compatible with Windows Server Active Directory. Azure AD Domain Services enables users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials – for example, when connecting remotely to machines joined to the domain via Remote Desktop.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview

NEW QUESTION 415
……


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NEW QUESTION 278
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Docker host. You are creating a Dockerfile to build a Docker image. You need to add a file named File1.txt from Server1 to C:\Folder1\ in the Docker image. What are two possible commands that you can use to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    COPY file1.txt c:/folder1/
B.    copy-item file1.txt folder1\file1.txt
C.    ROBOCOPY file.txt \folder1\
D.    XCOPY file1.txt c:\folder1\
E.    ADD file1.txt /folder1/

Answer: AE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/manage-docker/manage-windows-dockerfile

NEW QUESTION 279
You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table:

All of the virtual switches are of the external type. You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host1 and Host3.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 280
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enabled on Server1. Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft OneDrive for Business, Microsoft OneDrive, and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local services. You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1. What should you do on Server1?

A.    Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet.
B.    Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
C.    Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
D.    From the Windows Defender settings, configure a process exclusion.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 281
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to install the DNS Server role on Server1. What should you run?

A.    the dnscmd.exe command
B.    the Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature cmdlet
C.    the dns.exe command
D.    the setup.exe command

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster as shown in the exhibit:

Which hosts will respond to requests sent to nlb.adatum.com?

A.    Server1 only.
B.    Server2 only.
C.    Server1 and Server2 only.
D.    Server1, Server2, and Server3.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 283
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The server has an application named App1. App1 writes entries to the Application event log when errors are encountered. The events have IDs of either 111 or 112. You need to restart the service whenever either of these events is logged. What should you do?

A.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-SMServerEvent cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start-NetEventSession cmdlet.
B.    From Event Viewer, create a subscription that has a filter for the event IDs.
C.    From Event Viewer, use the Create Basic Task Wizard for each event ID.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-Event cmdlet and pipe the output to the Start-NetEventSession cmdlet.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 284
You have a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. The nodes run Windows Server 2016. The NLB cluster has the following configuration:

You deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to both servers. You need to configure NLB to load balance requests between the web servers. HTTP requests must be stateless. HTTPS requests must be stateful. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the Cluster operation mode.
B.    Suspend the cluster.
C.    Drainstop the cluster.
D.    Add a new port rule.
E.    Edit the existing port rule.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://www.ntweekly.com/2017/09/04/failover-nlb-cluster-host-member/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/network-load-balancing

NEW QUESTION 285
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enabled on Server1. Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft OneDrive for Business, Microsoft OneDrive, and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local services. You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1. What should you do on Server1?

A.    Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet.
B.    Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
C.    Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
D.    Run the Add-MpPreference cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-antivirus/configure-process-opened-file-exclusions-windows-defender-antivirus

NEW QUESTION 286
You plan to deploy three servers that will run Windows Server 2016. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table:

You need to ensure that you can use all of the available space on each disk. What is one of the disks that you must initialize as a GPT disk?

A.    Disk1 on Server2
B.    Disk2 on Server2
C.    Disk1 on Server1
D.    Disk2 on Server1

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/disk-management/initialize-new-disks#about-partition-styles-GPT-and-MBR

NEW QUESTION 287
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to install the DNS Server role on Server1. What should you run?

A.    the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
B.    the dnscmd.exe command
C.    the optionalfeatures.exe command
D.    the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet installs one or more roles, role services, or features on either the local or a specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2008 R2. This cmdlet has been replaced by the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet in Windows Server 2012 R2.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/servermanager/install-windowsfeature?view=winserver2012r2-ps

NEW QUESTION 288
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NEW QUESTION 121
You have a database that is 130 GB and contains 500 million rows of data. Granular transactions and mass batch data imports change the database frequently throughout the day. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) uses the database to generate various reports by using several filters. You discover that some reports time out before they complete. You need to reduce the likelihood that the reports will time out.
Solution: You increase the number of log files for the database. You store the log files across multiple disks.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, create a file group for the indexes and a file group for the data files.

NEW QUESTION 122
You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
– The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table.
– Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
– Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
– Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory. The transact-SQL statements for these tables are not available. You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
– Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
– Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
– A constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier.
– A constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table.
– A constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column.
– A constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four.
– Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirements:
– The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
– The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
– Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use WHERE clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized. You need to modify the environment to meet the requirements for the Orders table. What should you create?

A.    an AFTER UPDATE trigger
B.    a user-defined function
C.    a stored procedure with output parameters
D.    an INSTEAD OF INSERT trigger

Answer: D
Explanation:
From Question: You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements: Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-trigger-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 123
You have a table that has a clustered index and a nonclustered index. The indexes use different columns from the table. You have a query named Query1 that uses the nonclustered index. Users report that Query1 takes a long time to report results. You run Query1 and review the following statistics for an index seek operation:

You need to resolve the performance issue.
Solution: You rebuild the clustered index.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
The query uses the nonclustered index, so improving the clustered index will not help. We should update statistics for the nonclustered index.

NEW QUESTION 124
You need to create a view that can be indexed. You write the following statement:

What should you add at line 02?

A.    with check_option
B.    with recompile
C.    with view_metadata
D.    with schemabinding

Answer: D
Explanation:
The following steps are required to create an indexed view and are critical to the successful implementation of the indexed view:
1. Verify the SET options are correct for all existing tables that will be referenced in the view.
2. Verify that the SET options for the session are set correctly before you create any tables and the view.
3. Verify that the view definition is deterministic.
4. Create the view by using the WITH SCHEMABINDING option.
5. Create the unique clustered index on the view.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/views/create-indexed-views?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a nonpartitioned table that has a single dimension. The table is named dim.Products.Projections. The table is queried frequently by several line-of-business applications. The data is updated frequently throughout the day by two processes. Users report that when they query data from dim.Products.Projections, the responses are slower than expected. The issue occurs when a large number of rows are being updated. You need to prevent the updates from slowing down the queries. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The NOLOCK hint allows SQL to read data from tables by ignoring any locks and therefore not being blocked by other processes. This can improve query performance, but also introduces the possibility of dirty reads.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2470/understanding-the-sql-server-nolock-hint/

NEW QUESTION 126
Your company runs end-of-the-month accounting reports. While the reports run, other financial records are updated in the database. Users report that the reports take longer than expected to run. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the reports to run. The reports must show committed data only. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Snapshot isolation enhances concurrency for OLTP applications. Once snapshot isolation is enabled, updated row versions for each transaction are maintained in tempdb. A unique transaction sequence number identifies each transaction, and these unique numbers are recorded for each row version. The transaction works with the most recent row versions having a sequence number before the sequence number of the transaction. Newer row versions created after the transaction has begun are ignored by the transaction.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/snapshot-isolation-in-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 127
You have several real-time applications that constantly update data in a database. The applications run more than 400 transactions per second that insert and update new metrics from sensors. A new web dashboard is released to present the data from the sensors. Engineers report that the applications take longer than expected to commit updates. You need to change the dashboard queries to improve concurrency and to support reading uncommitted data. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The NOLOCK hint allows SQL to read data from tables by ignoring any locks and therefore not being blocked by other processes. This can improve query performance, but also introduces the possibility of dirty reads.
Incorrect:
Not F: When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Not G: DISABLE, not AUTO, would be better. There are two more lock escalation modes: AUTO and DISABLE:
– The AUTO mode enables lock escalation for partitioned tables only for the locked partition. For non-partitioned tables it works like TABLE.
– The DISABLE mode removes the lock escalation capability for the table and that is important when concurrency issues are more important than memory needs for specific tables.
Note: SQL Server’s locking mechanism uses memory resources to maintain locks. In situations where the number of row or page locks increases to a level that decreases the server’s memory resources to a minimal level, SQL Server’s locking strategy converts these locks to entire table locks, thus freeing memory held by the many single row or page locks to one table lock. This process is called lock escalation, which frees memory, but reduces table concurrency.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2470/understanding-the-sql-server-nolock-hint/

NEW QUESTION 128
You have multiple stored procedures inside a transaction. You need to ensure that all the data modified by the transaction is rolled back if a stored procedure causes a deadlock or times out. What should you do?

A.    Use the NOLOCK option.
B.    Execute the DBCC UPDATEUSAGE statement.
C.    Use the max worker threads option.
D.    Use a table-valued parameter.
E.    Set SET ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION to ON.
F.    Set SET XACT_ABORT to ON.
G.    Execute the ALTER TABLE T1 SET (LOCK_ESCALATION = AUTO); statement.
H.    Use the OUTPUT parameters.

Answer: F
Explanation:
When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 129
You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

Records must only be added to the Orders table by using the view. If a customer name does not exist, then a new customer name must be created. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the Orders table by using the view. What should you do?

A.    Add the CustomerID column from the Orders table and the WITH CHECK OPTION statement to the view.
B.    Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
C.    Add the WITH SCHEMABINDING statement to the view statement and create a clustered index on the view.
D.    Remove the subquery from the view, add the WITH SCHEMABINDING statement, and add a trigger to the Orders table to perform the required logic.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The WITH CHECK OPTION clause forces all data-modification statements executed against the view to adhere to the criteria set within the WHERE clause of the SELECT statement defining the view. Rows cannot be modified in a way that causes them to vanish from the view.
http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=130855&seqNum=4

NEW QUESTION 130
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

There are multiple unique OrderID values. Most of the UnitPrice values for the same OrderID are different. You need to create a single index seek query that does not use the following operators:
– Nested loop
– Sort
– Key lookup
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)
B.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice) INCLUDE (Quantity)
C.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (OrderID, UnitPrice, Quantity)
D.    CREATE INDEX IX_OrderLines_1 ON OrderLines (UnitPrice, OrderID) INCLUDE (Description, Quantity)

Answer: A
Explanation:
An index with nonkey columns can significantly improve query performance when all columns in the query are included in the index either as key or nonkey columns. Performance gains are achieved because the query optimizer can locate all the column values within the index; table or clustered index data is not accessed resulting in fewer disk I/O operations. Note: All data types except text, ntext, and image can be used as nonkey columns.
Incorrect:
Not C: Redesign nonclustered indexes with a large index key size so that only columns used for searching and lookups are key columns.
Not D: The most unique column should be the first in the index.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-index-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 131
You are developing an ETL process to cleanse and consolidate incoming data. The ETL process will use a reference table to identify which data must be cleansed in the target table. The server that hosts the table restarts daily. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes to execute the query and the amount of time it takes to populate the reference table. What should you do?

A.    Convert the target table to a memory-optimized table.
Create a natively compiled stored procedure to cleanse and consolidate the data.
B.    Convert the reference table to a memory-optimized table.
Set the DURABILITY option to SCHEMA_AND_DATA.
C.    Create a native compiled stored procedure to implement the ETL process for both tables.
D.    Convert the reference table to a memory-optimized table.
Set the DURABILITY option to SCHEMA_ONLY.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you use temporary tables, table variables, or table-valued parameters, consider conversions of them to leverage memory-optimized tables and table variables to improve performance. In-Memory OLTP provides the following objects that can be used for memory-optimizing temp tables and table variables:
……
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/in-memory-oltp/faster-temp-table-and-table-variable-by-using-memory-optimization?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 132
You are designing a stored procedure for a database named DB1. The following requirements must be met during the entire execution of the stored procedure:
– The stored procedure must only read changes that are persisted to the database.
– SELECT statements within the stored procedure should only show changes to the data that are made by the stored procedure.
You need to configure the transaction isolation level for the stored procedure. Which Transact-SQL statement or statements should you run?

A.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITED
ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT ON
B.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ COMMITED
ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT OFF
C.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE
D.    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITED
ALTER DATABASE SET READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT OFF

Answer: B
Explanation:
READ COMMITTED specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not committed by other transactions. This prevents dirty reads. Data can be changed by other transactions between individual statements within the current transaction, resulting in nonrepeatable reads or phantom data. This option is the SQL Server default.
Incorrect:
Not A, D: READ UNCOMMITTED specifies that statements can read rows that have been modified by other transactions but not yet committed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/snapshot-isolation-in-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 133
……


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NEW QUESTION 1401
Over the years a user has been accidentally creating copies of folders in a personal drive and as a result, there are now hundreds of “copy of copy” folders dotted throughout the drive. Which of the following Windows command line tools might a technician use to obtain a complete list of all the folders for use in a deletion script?

A.    dir
B.    ls
C.    rd
D.    del

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1402
A technician is attempting to create a hidden administrative share. Administrative shares can be created by using which of the following symbols after the drive letter or share name?

A.    #
B.    $
C.    !
D.    &

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1403
A user has reported sluggish performance to the help desk. A technician determines the user has been installing applications for entertainment and one of them might be slowing down the system. Which of the following tools would help the technician track down the troublesome application(s)?

A.    msconfig
B.    regedit
C.    defray
D.    gpupdate

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1404
An electrical fire starts in a PC on a crowded sales floor of an office building. Which of the following is the BEST way to extinguish the fire and keep all personnel safe?

A.    Use a large container filled with water
B.    Use a “C” labeled fire extinguisher
C.    Use an “A” labeled fire extinguisher
D.    Use a “B” labeled fire extinguisher
E.    Use a halon fire suppression system

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1405
Ann is a technician, operates a humanitarian relief business that often requires travel to harsh environments with a number of computers and equipment. An upcoming relief effort will require her to travel to a dry and dusty location. Which of the following items should Ann plan to bring to protect her equipment from the elements? (Choose two.)

A.    Heating elements
B.    Compressed air cans
C.    Extra computer cases
D.    Spare cables
E.    Humidifier
F.    Oxygen tanks

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 1406
As part of a regulatory compliance review, an organization determines it must migrate public cloud services, providing capabilities into the organizations datacenter. Which of the following does the organization plan to implement?

A.    IaaS cloud
B.    Private cloud
C.    Community cloud
D.    Hybrid cloud

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1407
A technician installs new software on a customer’s Windows 8 1 computer and is getting a missing DLL error. The technician verifies that the DLL file is located m the proper directory. Which of the following tools could be used to resolve this issue?

A.    grub
B.    rogsvr32
C.    defrag
D.    tracert

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1408
A technician is upgrading the OS of a home PC to Windows 7. The user wants to keep all the files and applications and does not want to do a clean install. The current version installed on the PC is Windows Vista 32-bit. Which of the following Windows versions is applicable?

A.    Windows 7 Ultimate x64
B.    Windows 7 Professional x64
C.    Windows 7 Professional x86
D.    Windows 7 Enterprise x86

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1409
A technician is attempting to remove all data from a hard drive and make the data unrecoverable. Which of the following is MOST likely to accomplish this?

A.    Format C: /q /x
B.    BitLocker
C.    Parted
D.    Disk repartition
E.    Low-level format

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1410
A user receives a call from someone who claims to be part of the IT department. The IT caller instructs the user to provide the IP address of the user’s computer. Which of the following actions should the user take NEXT?

A.    Assume a social engineering attack and disconnect.
B.    Provide the caller with the information requested.
C.    Contact the IT department for confirmation.
D.    Receive advice from a coworker on the situation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1411
A user needs assistance setting up auto-sync on a Windows 8 phone. Which of the following tools is MOST appropriate for this scenario?

A.    Google Sync
B.    OneNote
C.    Dropbox
D.    Amazon Cloud Sync

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1412
Which of the following is MOST likely a server with an associated MX record?

A.    Print server
B.    Web server
C.    File server
D.    Mail server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1413
A user wants to ensure important documents are protected from accidental deletion, system malfunctions, and malicious activity. Which of the following features should the user implement?

A.    Run System File Checker
B.    Configure recurring backups
C.    Allocate space to System Restore
D.    Update antivirus software

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1414
A user look pictures of a vacation using a new Android smartphone. Family and friends inform the user that some of the pictures have made the local news. Which of the following cloud services does the user MOST likely need to change to remediate the privacy concerns?

A.    iCloud
B.    Google Sync
C.    iTunes
D.    OneDrive

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1415
A user has installed a new application. After installing the application another application stops functioning and displays a missing DLL message. After determining which DLL has been deleted and finding it on the system, which of the following tools should be used to correct the error?

A.    REGSRV32
B.    DEFRAG
C.    MSCONFIG
D.    NTLDR

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1416
A customer calls the help desk to report an intermittent dim display on a recently purchased laptop that is used while traveling. The display appears to function properly white the customer is at home, but the display appears dim while traveling. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the dim display?

A.    The power cord has a short and does not provide power properly.
B.    The ambient light in the customer’s home causes the display to appear brighter.
C.    The display is defective and cannot maintain a consistent power level.
D.    The laptop is set to dim the display while on internal power.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1417
A user brings a personal laptop to the help desk and states that a clicking sound occurs when the laptop is turned on. After troubleshooting the issue, the technician concludes the hard drive needs to be replaced. The help desk does not replace any hardware on personal devices. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should follow?

A.    Dismiss the user’s issue and move to the next user
B.    Offer a different repair option to the user
C.    Replace the hard drive and inform the user
D.    Ask concise close-ended questions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1418
A technician is upgrading hard drives on several workstations however the office would like to convert the old SATA drives into external drives for additional storage. Which of the following would be the BEST method of ensuring the drives do not contain any PII prior to reusing the drives?

A.    Quick format
B.    Low-level format
C.    Degauss the drive
D.    Convert to a new file system

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1419
A technician is configuring a SOHO network of several Windows 7 PCs for a customer. The customer wants to easily share media and printers between all the PCs. Which of the following Windows features would BEST accomplish this goal?

A.    Homegroup
B.    Workgroup
C.    Directory Services
D.    Offline Folders

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1420
A user has been receiving reply emails from many contacts but the content of the emails is not familiar and the user did not send the original messages. The user calls the help desk for assistance. Which of the following is the BEST way the technician can fix this problem?

A.    Perform an antivirus scan
B.    Perform a refresh/restore
C.    Perform an IDS upgrade
D.    Perform a reinstall of the email client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1421
An accountant calls the IT administrator for assistance with a suspicious empty folder named “stuff.” The administrator determines the folder needs to be removed via the command-line interface. Which of the following Microsoft tools should be used to eliminate the folder from the accountant’s PC?

A.    del stuff
B.    kill stuff
C.    clean stuff
D.    rd stuff

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1422
A technician receives an end user’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Roll back the NIC driver
B.    Update and install anti-malware software
C.    Configure and enable the email spam filters
D.    Verify the security certificate is valid
E.    Perform a full system backup

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1423
A company wants to streamline the remote deployment of desktop and laptop computers. Which of the following should the technician implement if the primary goal is to ensure the installation can complete automatically once started?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Remote network installation
C.    Repair installation
D.    Clean installation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1424
By default which of the following permissions will take precedence over any other assigned permission on a mapped network drive?

A.    Deny
B.    Modify
C.    Share
D.    Allow

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1425
Which of the following is MOST likely to appear on the display during a Mac OS X crash?

A.    BSOD
B.    Kernel panic
C.    Pinwheel
D.    Stack dump

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1426
A technician needs to load several new computers with the company’s customized OS configuration. The technician asks if the systems can be PXE booted. To save the most time which of the following should be considered if the technician plans to use PXE to boot the systems?

A.    Multiboot
B.    Repair installation
C.    Upgrade installation
D.    Image deployment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1427
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following features is supported in Check Point’s implementation of IPv6?

A.    Security Servers
B.    QoS
C.    ClusterXL High Availability
D.    SAM

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk39374

NEW QUESTION 2
Which type of SecureXL template is enabled by default on Security Gateways?

A.    Accept
B.    Drop
C.    NAT
D.    VPN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which command is used to enable IPv6 on Security Gateway?

A.    Set ipv6 state on
B.    Set ipv6 interface on
C.    Set ipv6-enable on
D.    Set ipv6-state enabled

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following ports are used for SIC?

A.    18355 and 18356
B.    18210 and 18211
C.    257 and 258
D.    18192 and 18193

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://digitalcrunch.com/check-point-firewall/list-of-check-point-ports/

NEW QUESTION 5
Which one of the following does not belong to an initial status of a critical device?

A.    Restart
B.    Problem
C.    Init
D.    OK

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

NEW QUESTION 6
The Security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80, the port for Web User Interface is ____.

A.    TCP 18211
B.    TCP 257
C.    TCP 4433
D.    TCP 443

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
What is the shorthand reference for a classification object?

A.    CLOB
B.    Class.obj
C.    Classobj
D.    COBJ

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk120964

NEW QUESTION 8
Where do Protocol parsers register themselves for IPS?

A.    Passive Streaming Library
B.    Other handlers register to Protocol parser
C.    Protections database
D.    Context Management Infrastructure

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.nwtechusa.com/pdf/checkpoint_blade_ips.pdf

NEW QUESTION 9
What Cluster XL mechanism is used to verify that the interfaces of other cluster members are UP and communicates the status of cluster members?

A.    PING
B.    CCP
C.    PPP
D.    HELLO

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
The maximum number of critical devices or p notes on a cluster member is what?

A.    8
B.    24
C.    32
D.    16

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

NEW QUESTION 11
URL Filtering is an essential part of Web Security in the Gateway. For the Security Gateway to perform a URL lookup when a client makes a URL request, where is the sync-request forwarded from if a sync-request is required?

A.    RAD Kernel Space
B.    URLF Kernel Client
C.    URLF Online Service
D.    RAD User Space

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/9034-url-filtering-using-dns

NEW QUESTION 12
Which templates for Secure XL are not enabled by default?

A.    All templates are disabled by default
B.    Accept and NMR
C.    Drop and NAT
D.    All templates are enabled by default

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk71200

NEW QUESTION 13
IPS detection incorporates 4 layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer in IPS detection?

A.    Context Management
B.    Protocol Parsers
C.    Protections
D.    Detections

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Consider and IKE debug file that has been generated when debugging an issue with site to site VPN. What is the purpose of a NONCE?

A.    Randomly generated part of key generation
B.    Vendor ID and Remote Gateway ID
C.    Protocol 50 and 51 representations
D.    Fixed hex value of Phase 2 keys with PFS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
In a high traffic network, which feature allows for more than one traffic path on an interface so that more than one CPU can be used for acceleration?

A.    Interface Bonding
B.    VLAN
C.    ASIC
D.    Multi Queue

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 561
A home user has purchased a new smart TV to stream online video services. The smart TV is unable to connect to the wireless network after several attempts. After returning from vacation, the home user tries again and can connect the TV to the wireless network. However, the user notices a laptop is no longer able to connect to the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.    The DHCP scope has been exhausted.
B.    The security passcode has been changed.
C.    The SSID is hidden.
D.    The AP configuration was reset.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 562
A security guard notices an authorized individual, who is dressed like a lab technician, has entered a secure area of the hospital with a large group. Which of the following security attacks is taking place?

A.    Evil twin
B.    Social engineering
C.    Insider threat
D.    Phishing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 563
Which of the following DNS record types allows IPv6 records to be resolved to DNS names?

A.    PTR
B.    A
C.    AAAA
D.    SRV

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 564
A network technician has recently installed new VoIP phones at all employee’s desks to support a new SIP cloud VoIP solution. However, the technician is unable to make a call from the device after testing. Which of the following should the technician verify? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP 443 is allowed.
B.    UDP 1720 is allowed.
C.    UDP 5060 is allowed.
D.    UDP 5061 is allowed.
E.    TCP 8080 is allowed.
F.    TCP 8181 is allowed.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 565
Which of the following would allow a network technician to access files on a remote system? (Choose two.)

A.    FTP
B.    TFTP
C.    VLSM
D.    SIP
E.    SMTP
F.    IMAP

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 566
Which of the following provides two-factor authentication?

A.    Username + password
B.    Smart card + PIN
C.    Fingerprint + retina scan
D.    Key fob + ID card

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 567
A technician set up a new SOHO network recently. The installed router has four Ethernet ports, however, the customer has seven devices that need wired connections. Which of the following should the technician do to BEST meet the customer’s requirements?

A.    Install a six-port switch.
B.    Configure port forwarding on the router.
C.    Install WAPs near the devices.
D.    Configure the switchports as EtherChannel ports.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 568
A technician is performing a maintenance task on a weekly basis and wants to ensure the task is properly documented and able to be performed by other technicians. Which of the following types of documentation should the technician complete?

A.    Standard operating procedure
B.    Work order
C.    Performance baseline
D.    Logical diagram
E.    Change management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 569
A company is allowing its employees to use their personal computers, tablets, and IoT devices while at work. However, there are rules and guidelines to which employees must adhere. Which of the following documents applies to these employees?

A.    NDA
B.    SOP
C.    BYOD
D.    SLA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 570
Which of the following are characteristics of jumbo frames? (Choose two.)

A.    Commonly used on SAN
B.    MTU size greater than 1500
C.    MTU size greater than 10000
D.    Commonly used on IaaS
E.    MTU size greater than 12000

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 571
A network administrator gets a call regarding intermittent network outages across the country. Which of the following should be used to connect to the network so the administrator can troubleshoot this issue from home? (Choose two.)

A.    FTP
B.    SMTP
C.    VPN
D.    SSH
E.    SNMP

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 572
A network technician downloaded new firmware for the company firewall. Which of the following should the network technician verify to ensure the downloaded file is correct and complete?

A.    File hash
B.    File date
C.    File type
D.    File size

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 573
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues with a remote host. Which of the following tools would BEST inform the technician of nodes between the client and the remote host? (Choose two.)

A.    tracert
B.    ping
C.    tcpdump
D.    pathping
E.    netstat
F.    nslookup
G.    route

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 574
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a collision occurs?

A.    CSMA/CD
B.    CSMA/CA
C.    MPLS
D.    OSPF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 575
A network technician receives a call from a branch office about a problem with its wireless connectivity. The user states the office is hosting a large meeting that includes some online training with local businesses. The guest users have all brought devices to connect to the guest network at the branch office. All users are connected to a single WAP and are reporting that connections keep dropping and network spends are unusable. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    DHCP exhaustion
B.    Channel overlapping
C.    Interference
D.    Overcapacity

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 576
Which of the following BEST describes an exploit?

A.    A router with default credentials
B.    An open mail relay server
C.    An SNMPv1 private community
D.    A privilege escalation script

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 577
A server in a LAN was configured to act as a gateway between all company computers and an external network. Which of the following networking devices offers the ability to increase both performance and security?

A.    Load balancer
B.    IDS
C.    Proxy server
D.    Wireless controller

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 578
A technician is setting up VoIP phones on a wireless network. Users report that calls are choppy and sometimes dropped. The technician has measured two characteristics using simple command-line tools that verify the problem. Which of the following characteristics did the technician measure? (Choose two.)

A.    Reflection
B.    Latency
C.    Interference
D.    Packet loss
E.    Signal-to-noise ratio
F.    Attenuation

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 579
Which of the following ports should a network technician open on a firewall to back up the configuration and operating system files of a router to a remote server using the FASTEST method possible?

A.    UDP port 22
B.    TCP port 22
C.    TCP port 25
D.    UDP port 53
E.    UDP port 69

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 580
A technician is replacing a failed SOHO router for a customer who has an existing switch, cable modem, and static IP address. The user has a web server that faces the Internet so users can visit and leave comments. Which of the following BEST describes the correct configuration for this customer’s requirements?

A.    The modem is placed in bridge mode, the router is placed behind the modem, and the web server is placed behind the router.
B.    The router is placed in bridge mode, the modem is placed behind the router, and the web server is placed behind the modem.
C.    The web server is placed in bridge mode, the router is placed behind the web server, and the modem is placed behind the router.
D.    The switch is placed in bridge mode, the modem is placed behind the router, and the router is placed behind the modem.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 581
A network technician is attempting to troubleshoot a connectivity issue. The issue is only reported during the evening hours, and only a single workstation loses connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.    The router has a time-based ACL, applied for the network segment.
B.    A light source is creating EMI interference, affecting the UTP cabling.
C.    Nightly backups are consuming excessive bandwidth.
D.    The user has violated the AUP, and Internet access has been restricted.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 582
A network administrator is redesigning network security after an attack. During the attack, an attacker used open cubicle locations to attach devices to the network. The administrator wants to be able to monitor future attacks in a safe environment and determine the method of attack. Which of the following should the administrator do to BEST meet this requirement?

A.    Create a VLAN for the unused ports and create a honeyspot on the VLAN.
B.    Install a BPDU guard on switchports and enable STP.
C.    Create a DMZ for public servers and secure a segment for the internal network.
D.    Install antivirus software and set an ACL on the servers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 583
A company has just refreshed the hardware in its datacenter with new 10G Ethernet switches. A technician wishes to set up a new storage area network but must use existing infrastructure. Which of the following storage standards should the technician use?

A.    iSCSI
B.    Fibre Channel
C.    NAS
D.    InfiniBand

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 584
A network technician needs to install a new access switch. After installing the new switch, the technician begins to move connections from the old switch to the new switch. The old switch used a GBIC with SC connectors, and the new switch uses an SFP with LC connectors. After connecting the SC connector to the SC-to-LC adapter and plugging it into the switch, the link does not come up as expected. Which of the following should a network technician perform NEXT?

A.    Replace SFP with a new one.
B.    Fall back to the old switch.
C.    Transpose the fiber pairs.
D.    Replace multimode with single-mode cable.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 585
A network technician is installing a new SOHO branch office that requires the use of a DOCSIS-compatible modem. The modem needs to be connected to the ISP’s network at the demarc. Which of the following cable types should be used?

A.    UTP
B.    Multimode
C.    Coaxial
D.    Serial

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 586
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You have two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. Each subscription is associated to a different Azure AD tenant. Subscription1 contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1 and has an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16. Subscription2 contains a virtual network named VNet2. Vnet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2 and has an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/24. You need to connect VNet1 to VNet2. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the IP address space of VNet2.
B.    Move VM1 to Subscription2.
C.    Provision virtual network gateways.
D.    Move VNet1 to Subscription2.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You configure Azure AD Connect for Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-On (Azure AD Seamless SSO) for an on-premises network. Users report that when they attempt to access myapps.microsoft.com, they are prompted multiple times to sign in and are forced to use an account name that ends with onmicrosoft.com. You discover that there is a UPN mismatch between Azure AD and the on-premises Active Directory. You need to ensure that the users can use single-sign on (SSO) to access Azure resources. What should you do first?

A.    From on-premises network, deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
B.    From Azure AD, add and verify a custom domain name.
C.    From on-premises network, request a new certificate that contains the Active Directory domain name.
D.    From the server that runs Azure AD Connect, modify the filtering options.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps. You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent within seven days.
Solution: Backup data to local disks and use the Azure Import/Export service to send backups to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
HotSpot
You are creating a bot for a company by using QnA Maker. You need to ensure that the company can update the bot without third-party assistance. What should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/qnamaker/overview/overview

NEW QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do?

A.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
B.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
D.    Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/hyper-v-azure-tutorial

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All administrators must enter a verification code to access the Azure portal. You need to ensure that the administrators can access the Azure portal only from your on-premises network. What should you configure?

A.    the default for all the roles in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
B.    an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy
C.    an Azure AD Identity Protection sign-in risk policy
D.    the multi-factor authentication service settings

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings

Case Study 1
The on-premises workloads run on virtual machines hosted in a VMware vSphere 6 infrastructure. All the virtual machines are members of an Active Directory forest named adatum.com and run Windows Server 2016. The New York office uses an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16. The Los Angeles office uses an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/16. The offices connect by using a VPN provided by an ISP. Each office has one Azure ExpressRoute circuit that provides access to Azure services and Microsoft Online Services. Routing is implemented by using Microsoft peering. The New York office has a virtual machine named VM1 that has the vSphere console installed.
……

NEW QUESTION 11
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a basic routing rule
C.    a URL path-based routing rule
D.    a basic listener

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits. How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? (To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
……

NEW QUESTION 14
You are creating an IoT solution using Azure Time Series Insights. You configure the environment to ensure that all data for the current year is available. What should you do?

A.    Add a disaster recovery (DR) strategy.
B.    Set a value for the Data retention time setting.
C.    Change the pricing tier.
D.    Create a reference data set.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
You create a social media application that users can use to upload images and other content. Users report that adult content is being posted in an area of the site that is accessible to and intended for young children. You need to automatically detect and flag potentially offensive content. The solution must not require any custom coding other than code to scan and evaluate images. What should you implement?

A.    Bing Visual Search
B.    Bing Image Search
C.    Custom Vision Search
D.    Computer Vision API

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……

Case Study 2
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services. Best For You Organics hosts an Azure web app at the URL https://www.bestforyouorganics.com. Users can use the web app to browse restaurant location, menu items, nutritional information, and company information. The company developed and deployed a cross-platform mobile app.
……

NEW QUESTION 21
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications

NEW QUESTION 22
You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A.    HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)
B.    Direct Line API
C.    Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D.    Bot Framework Portal
E.    Bot Framework authentication

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 23
……

NEW QUESTION 28
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do?

A.    Create an Azure AD conditional access policy.
B.    Configure a playbook in Azure Security Center.
C.    Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
D.    Install an MFA Server.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 29
You are developing an app that references data which is shared across multiple Azure SQL databases. The app must guarantee transactional consistency for changes across several different sharing key values. You need to manage the transactions. What should you implement?

A.    Elastic database transactions with horizontal partitioning.
B.    Distributed transactions coordinated by Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator (MSDTC).
C.    Server-coordinated transactions from .NET application.
D.    Elastic database transactions with vertical partitioning.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/mt-mt/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview?view=azurermps-6.13.0

NEW QUESTION 30
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot. The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly. You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot. What should you implement?

A.    The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B.    The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.
C.    The Skype Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
D.    The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 31
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NEW QUESTION 116
Ensure HDX sessions are launched in the zone that is closest to user data, if possible. If the preferred zone for the user is unavailable, launch the session in an alternative zone. Which zone preference setting can the Citrix Engineer use to accomplish these objectives?

A.    App Home
B.    User Home
C.    User Location
D.    Mandatory User Home Zone

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
Scenario:
A company has three data center locations. Each location maintains a large number of users who will need to access applications and desktop resources. The company owns sufficient hardware resources and maintains sufficient financial resources to build its New XenDesktop infrastructure. The WAN connectivity between the three data centers is NOT reliable. Which deployment option should a Citrix Engineer implement to meet this requirement?

A.    A single XenDesktop Site with three zones (one Primary Zone and two Satellite Zones) and one SQL database.
B.    A single XenDesktop Site with three zones (one Primary Zone and two Satellite Zones) and one SQL database maintained in each zone.
C.    A multi-Site infrastructure, with each city maintaining its own fully functional Site and including at least one Delivery Controller and SQL database in each Site location.
D.    A single XenDesktop Site with three Satellite Zones and implementing with the infrastructure in the Citrix Cloud.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 118
What is the primary Agent Host process that communicates with the Infrastructure Services server and is responsible for enforcing the session settings?

A.    Norskale Agent Host Service.exe
B.    Norskale Broker Service.exe
C.    Agent Cache Utility.exe
D.    Norskale Broker Service Configuration Utility.exe

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer completed the installation and setup of a new Workspace Environment Management (WEM) infrastructure. To begin administrator of the new environment, the engineer must configure the console so that it is longer in the default, disconnected state. Which three steps will the engineer take to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

A.    Enter the name and port for the SQL database server in the New Connection window.
B.    Click “Connect” from within the “Home” tab of the Administration Console ribbon.
C.    Enter the Infrastructure Server Name and administration port information in the New Infrastructure Sever Connection window.
D.    Click “Connect” from within the “About” tab of the Administration Console ribbon.
E.    Launch the Workspace Environment Management Administration Console from the Start menu.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 120
Which three vDisk migration scenarios are supported by Provisioning Services? (Choose three.)

A.    Importing a series of differencing disks originally created on Hyper-V to a Provisioning Services Store.
B.    Exporting a full vDisk chain from a Provisioning Services Store and importing it to a different Store in the same Provisioning Services Farm for the first time.
C.    Exporting a new .AVHDX file from a development Provisioning Services Store and importing it to a production Store in the same Farm that has the rest of the vDisk chain and pre-existing manifest file.
D.    Importing an individual .VHDX file originally created outside of Provisioning Services to a Provisioning Services Store.
E.    Exporting a merged vDisk from a provisioning Services Store and importing it to a Store in a different Provisioning Services Farm for the first time.

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 121
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer is managing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment that has been built with the following site architecture:
– The environment consists of one Site with three zones.
– The primary Zone is located in datacenter A.
– Satellite Zone 1 is located in datacenter B.
– Satellite Zone 2 is located in datacenter C.
– Gateway A is in datacenter A.
– Gateway B is in datacenter B.
– A NetScaler Gateway has been set up in datacenter B. Each Gateway has access to all zones.
– The StoreFront server group is located in the Primary Zone and enumerates all resources within the Site.
– Delivery Controllers are configured in all three zones.
– Application B is available in all zones.
– A User Home has been configured for User 1 in Satellite Zone 2.
– Optimal Gateway Routing has been configured so that Gateway A is preferred for the Primary Zone and Satellite Zone 2; Gateway B is preferred for Satellite Zone 1.
User 1 is located near datacenter A, logs in through NetScaler Gateway and attempts to launch Application B. What will be the expected behavior in this scenario?

A.    Resource enumeration and the HDX connection are established using Gateway B.
B.    Resource enumeration and the HDX connection are established using Gateway A.
C.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway B; the HDX connection is established using Gateway A.
D.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway B; the HDX connection is established using Gateway A.
E.    Resource enumeration occurs using Gateway A; the HDX connection is established using Gateway B.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 122
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer recently completed the configuration and implementation of various Workspace Environment Management (WEM) actions for different users within an environment. The engineer would like to confirm that all the appropriate configurations were completed for each of the users and decides to launch the Modeling Wizard. What is the next step the engineer can take to confirm that each user’s actions were correctly configured?

A.    Select the account name of the user, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant User Groups screen.
B.    Add any group name of which the user is a member, complete the wizard and review the output on the resultant Actions screen.
C.    Select the account name of the user, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant Actions screen.
D.    Add any group name of which the user is a member, complete the wizard and review the output on the Resultant User Groups screen.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 123
Which repository can a Citrix Engineer use to store Elastic Layers within the network?

A.    Windows File Server Share
B.    Hypervisor data store
C.    SharePoint site
D.    FTP Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 124
Which component of Workspace Environment Management (WEM) is responsible for enforcing session settings?

A.    Active Directory infrastructure
B.    Agent Host
C.    SQL Database
D.    Infrastructure Services Broker

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 125
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer recently implemented Workspace Environment Management (WEM) into an existing XenDesktop infrastructure to include deploying the Agent Host on several Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. The engineer created two WEM Sites (Site A and Site B) with various global settings set for the users of each site. Upon rolling out the new WEM infrastructure to production the engineer noticed that users from Site B were NOT receiving their global settings within the sessions. What could be the cause of this issue?

A.    Some of the Agent Hosts were NOT configured to point to the Broker Service in Site.
B.    The Agent port setting was NOT configured using GPO.
C.    The Management Agent Host Configuration ADMX template was NOT imported to all VDAs.
D.    A Windows firewall rule on the Infrastructure Services server is blocking the port required to communicate with Site.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126
Scenario:
A Citrix Administrator needs to install a new application on a Desktop OS machine. A new ISO image was added to the CIFS file share that is attached to the storage repository. When the administrator tries to install the application, the ISO is NOT showing as available. Which xe command should the administrator run to make the ISO image available?

A.    sr-scan
B.    sr-update
C.    vm-cd-add
D.    vm-disk-add

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 127
Scenario:
Users complain that they are NOT able to print to the new special barcode printers attached to their client devices. However, they can print to other mapped printers. What should a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    Configure the Printer Assignments policy setting.
B.    Set the Client printer redirection policy to Allowed.
C.    Configure Default Print Flags on the Desktop OS machines.
D.    Pre-stage manufacturer-provided printer drivers on the Desktop OS machines using pnputil.exe.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 128
A Citrix Administrator needs to retrieve a license from a user who has left the organization. Which command should the administrator execute on the License Server to complete this task without retrieving licenses from other users?

A.    lmutil
B.    lmdown
C.    net stop
D.    udadmin

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 129
A Citrix Administrator deployed a new version of Citrix Receiver to users. Which two tools could the administrator use to determine if connected users are using the new version? (Choose two.)

A.    Citrix Studio
B.    Citrix Director
C.    Desktop Log files
D.    StoreFront Console

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 130
Which two Citrix policy setting must a Citrix Engineer enable to apply Quality of Service (QoS) setting to the HDX protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Multi-Stream user setting
B.    Legacy graphics mode
C.    HDX Adaptive Transport
D.    Multi-Stream computer setting
E.    Framework display channel

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 131
Scenario:
A Citrix Engineer selected the Provisioning Services write cache option “Cache on server persistent” for a vDisk. The engineer needs to ensure that users are NOT interrupted if a Provisioning Services server fails. What should the engineer configure to enable high availability (HA) on the Provisioning Services servers?

A.    Enable HA for the Provisioning Services database.
B.    Change the write cache location to cache on the device.
C.    Place the write cache on a Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) share.
D.    Copy the write cache from one server to the second server.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 132
……


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NEW QUESTION 1000
Which two control protocols use the native VLAN 1 by default? (Choose two.)

A.    CDP
B.    VTP
C.    NTP
D.    LACP
E.    STP

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 1001
Which technology provides a multichassis IP connection between VSS-enabled switches and downstream devices?

A.    LAG
B.    PAgP
C.    MEC
D.    ICCP
E.    LACP
F.    BFD

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1002
If a switch that is configured globally with DHCP snooping receives a packet that has DHCP Option-82 set to 192.168.1.254, how does the switch handle the packet?

A.    It forwards the packet normally.
B.    It removes the Option-82 information from the packet and forwards the packet.
C.    It drops the packet.
D.    It replaces the source MAC address of the packet with its own MAC address and forwards the packet.
E.    It replaces the source IP address of the packet with its own management IP address and forwards the packet.
F.    It sends a proxy ARP request for the MAC address of 192.168.1.254.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1003
Which three feature of AAA with RADIUS are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It encrypts the password for transmission.
B.    It integrates authorization and authentication functions.
C.    It separates authorization and authentication functions.
D.    It encrypts the entire transmission.
E.    It secures access to endpoint devices.
F.    It secures access to network devices.

Answer: ABF

NEW QUESTION 1004
Which command do you enter on a device so that users are automatically placed in enable mode after they authenticate with TACACS+?

A.    aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ if-authenticated
B.    aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local-case
C.    aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ enable
D.    aaa authentication exec default group tacacs+ if-authenticated

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1005
Which two statements about recovering error-disabled interface are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Reloading the switch recovers it from the error-disabled state.
B.    If errdisable recovery is configured, the interface is recovered automatically when the root problem is corrected.
C.    Removing and reinserting network media recovers an interface from the error-disabled state.
D.    Errdisable recovery is enabled by default and operates normally without additional configuration.
E.    The show errdisable recovery command displays the conditions for which autorecovery is enabled.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 1006
Which two configuration requirements for port security are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The port must be part of a trunk.
B.    Port security must be enable at the port level.
C.    Port security must be enabled at the global level.
D.    The port must be SPAN port.
E.    The port must be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
F.    The port must be in access mode.

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 1007
To which VLAN is a dynamic access port assigned by default?

A.    None, until the VLAN membership of the port is discovered.
B.    The native VLAN.
C.    The same VLAN as the VLAN membership policy server.
D.    VLAN 1, the default VLAN.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1008
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It is a Cisco-proprietary technology.
B.    It support several less-common protocol in addition to IP.
C.    It encrypts only the packet header.
D.    It is more reliable than RADIUS because it communicates with UDP packets.
E.    It is backwards-compatible with TACACS.
F.    It combines accounting and authorization functions.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 1009
Which form of centralized device authentication allows each AAA feature to function separately?

A.    local database
B.    RADIUS
C.    TACACS+
D.    kerberos

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1010
Which command prevents all access ports on a switch from sending or receiving BPDUs?

A.    spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B.    spanning-tree bpdufilter default
C.    spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
D.    spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1011
Which two statements about configuring EtherChannel are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They can be configured to passively negotiate a channel with a connected peer.
B.    They can be configured with the no switchport command to place them in Layer 3 mode.
C.    They can be configured to load-balancing traffic based on Layer 7 information.
D.    They can be configured to operate with up to 10 links in a single channel.
E.    They can be configured to send Layer 2 packets.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 1012
Which two statements about UDLD aggressive mode are true? (Choose two.)

A.    UDLD attempts to re-establish a downed link one time before declaring the link down.
B.    UDLD message are send every 15 seconds.
C.    If a unidirectional link is detected, the port state is determined by spanning tree.
D.    UDLD automatically chooses the messaging interval based on the configured timers.
E.    The UDLD detection timer is four times the message interval by default.
F.    If a unidirectional link is detected, the port state is changed to errdisable.

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 1013
You are configured dynamic ARP inspection. Which command must you configure on the device to detect unexpected IP addresses in the ARP packet?

A.    ip are inspection validate ip
B.    ip verify source
C.    ip are inspection trust
D.    ip are inspection vlan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1014
Which two commands enable you to determine the native VLAN that is configured on an interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface status
B.    show interfaces
C.    show interface trunk
D.    show running-config
E.    show interface brief

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 1015
In a Cisco StackWise Virtual environment, which planes on the component devices are virtually combined in the common logical switch?

A.    control and management only
B.    control and data only
C.    control, data, and management
D.    management and data only

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1016
Which statement about Cisco StackWise is true?

A.    When a new switch is added, the master switch suspends traffic forwarding until the new switch is updated with the least running configuration.
B.    The stack elects a master switch and a standby switch to support rapid failover.
C.    The entire stack communicates using a single management IP address.
D.    If a single interconnect cable in the stack fails, the stack can continue to operate at full bandwidth.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1017
In which EtherChannel mode does a port receive and respond to PAgP message without initiating EtherChannel communication?

A.    desirable
B.    active
C.    on
D.    auto

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1018
If all switches in a network have the same spanning-tree priority, which switch is elected as the root bridge?

A.    the switch with the highest physical interface IP address
B.    the switch with the lowest MAC address
C.    the switch with the lowest loopback interface IP address
D.    the switch with the highest MAC address

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1019
Which command configures all access ports on a switch to immediately enter the forwarding state when the switch is reset?

A.    spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B.    spanning-tree portfast default
C.    spanning-tree portfast
D.    spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1020
Which three responses from a RADIUS server are valid? (Choose three.)

A.    CHALLENGE
B.    ACKNOWLEDGE
C.    UPDATE PASSWORD
D.    REJECT
E.    ACCEPT
F.    CONFIRM

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 1021
Which VTP mode must you configure on a VTP domain so that the switch with the highest VTP configuration revision number in the domain propagates VLAN information to the other switches?

A.    server mode
B.    transparent mode
C.    off mode
D.    client mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1022
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the statements about remote security databases from the left onto the correct security database types on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 1023
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the GLBP components from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 1024
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant. You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated. You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains a user named User1. You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1. You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User 1 from the past 24 hours. To which three roles should you add to Admin1? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Security administrator
B.    Password administrator
C.    User administrator
D.    Compliance administrator

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription. You enable Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all 500 users in the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process. What is the best approach to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser cmdlet.
B.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-MsolUser cmdlet.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the MFA Server blade.
D.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Risky sign-ins blade.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization and a Microsoft 365 Enterprise subscription. You plan to migrate mailboxes and groups to Exchange Online. You start a new migration batch. Users report slow performance when they use the on-premises Exchange Server organization. You discover that the migration is causing the slow performance. You need to reduce the impact of the mailbox migration on the end-users. What should you do?

A.    Create a mail flow rule.
B.    Configure back pressure.
C.    Modify the migration endpoint setting.
D.    Create a throttling policy.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains Microsoft Exchange Online. You plan to enable calendar sharing with a partner organization named adatum.com. The partner organization also has a Microsoft 365 tenant. You need to ensure that the calendar of every user is available to the users in adatum.com immediately. What should you do?

A.    From the Exchange admin center, create a sharing policy.
B.    From the Exchange admin center, create a new organization relationship.
C.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, modify the organization profile settings.
D.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure external site sharing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
HotSpot
Your company has offices in several cities and 100,000 users. The network contains an Active Directory domain contoso.com. You purchase Microsoft 365 and plan to deploy several Microsoft 365 services. You are evaluating the implementation of pass-through authentication and seamless SSO. Azure AD Connect will NOT be in staging mode. You need to identify the redundancy limits for the planned implementation. What should you identify? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named onmicrosoft.com. You purchase a domain named contoso.com from a register and add all the required DNS records. You create a user account named User1 that is configured to sign in as user1@contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You need to configure User1 to sign in as user1@contoso.com. Which three actions should you perform in sequent? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant includes a user named User1. You enable Azure AD Identity Protection. You need to ensure that User1 can review the list in Azure AD Identity Protection of users nagged for risk. The solution must use the principle of the least privilege. To which role should you add to User1?

A.    Security reader
B.    Compliance administrator
C.    Reports reader
D.    Global administrator

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
……

Case Study 1
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All desktop computers and laptops run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joint to contoso.com. All the mobile devices in the Montreal and Seattle offices run Android. All the mobile devices in the New York office run iOS. Contoso has the users shown in the following table.
……

NEW QUESTION 21
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role. From the Exchange admin center, you assign User2 the Compliance Management role.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22
You need to meet the security requirements for Group1. What should you do?

A.    Configure all users to sign in by using multi-factor authentication.
B.    Modify the properties of Group1.
C.    Assign Group1 a management role.
D.    Modify the Password reset properties of the Azure AD tenant.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23
……

Case Study 2
Each office has a high-speed connection to the internet. Each office contains two domain controllers. All domain controllers are configured as a DNS server. All users connect to an on-premises Microsoft Exchange server 2016 organization. The users access their email by using Outlook Anywhere. Outlook on the web, or the Microsoft Outlook app for iOS. All the Exchange servers have the latest cumulative updates installed. All shared company documents are stored on a Microsoft SharePoint server farm.
……

NEW QUESTION 41
You need to meet the application requirement for App1. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the application URL settings.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add an enterprise application.
C.    On an on-premises server, download and install the Microsoft AAD Application Proxy connector.
D.    On an on-premises server, install the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
E.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure the Software download settings.

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 42
You need to ensure that all the sales department users can authenticate successfully during Project1 and Project2. Which authentication strategy should you implement for the pilot projects?

A.    password hash synchronization and seamless SSO
B.    pass-through authentication
C.    password hash synchronization
D.    pass-through authentication and seamless SSO

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 43
……


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NEW QUESTION 701
A company’s security policy states that all Web browsers must automatically delete their HTTP browser cookies upon terminating. What sort of security breach is this policy attempting to mitigate?

A.    Attempts by attackers to access the user and password information stored in the company’s SQL database.
B.    Attempts by attackers to access Web sites that trust the Web browser user by stealing the user’s authentication credentials.
C.    Attempts by attackers to access password stored on the user’s computer without the user’s knowledge.
D.    Attempts by attackers to determine the user’s Web browser usage patterns, including when sites were visited and for how long.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 702
To maintain compliance with regulatory requirements, a security audit of the systems on a network must be performed to determine their compliance with security policies. Which one of the following tools would most likely be used in such an audit?

A.    Protocol analyzer
B.    Intrusion Detection System
C.    Port scanner
D.    Vulnerability scanner

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 703
You are tasked to perform a penetration test. While you are performing information gathering, you find an employee list in Google. You find the receptionist’s email, and you send her an email changing the source email to her boss’s email (boss@company). In this email, you ask for a pdf with information. She reads your email and sends back a pdf with links. You exchange the pdf links with your malicious links (these links contain malware) and send back the modified pdf, saying that the links don’t work. She reads your email, opens the links, and her machine gets infected. You now have access to the company network. What testing method did you use?

A.    Social engineering
B.    Piggybacking
C.    Tailgating
D.    Eavesdropping

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 704
Your team has won a contract to infiltrate an organization. The company wants to have the attack be as realistic as possible; therefore, they did not provide any information besides the company name. What should be the first step in security testing the client?

A.    Reconnaissance
B.    Escalation
C.    Scanning
D.    Enumeration

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 705
A medium-sized healthcare IT business decides to implement a risk management strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?

A.    Accept
B.    Delegate
C.    Mitigate
D.    Avoid

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 706
OpenSSL on Linux servers includes a command line tool for testing TLS. What is the name of the tool and the correct syntax to connect to a web server?

A.    openssl s_client -site www.website.com:443
B.    openssl_client -site www.website.com:443
C.    openssl_client -connect www.website.com:443
D.    openssl s_client -connect www.website.com:443

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 707
Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A.    Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program.
B.    Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
C.    Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
D.    Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 708
John is an incident handler at a financial institution. His steps in a recent incident are not up to the standards of the company. John frequently forgets some steps and procedures while handling responses as they are very stressful to perform. Which of the following actions should John take to overcome this problem with the least administrative effort?

A.    Increase his technical skills.
B.    Read the incident manual every time it occurs.
C.    Select someone else to check the procedures.
D.    Create an incident checklist.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 709
Which of the following is the least-likely physical characteristic to be used in biometric control that supports a large company?

A.    Voice
B.    Fingerprints
C.    Iris patterns
D.    Height and Weight

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 710
While using your bank’s online servicing you notice the following string in the URL bar:
http://www.MyPersonalBank.com/account?id=368940911028389&Damount=10980&Camount=21″
You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflects the changes. Which type of vulnerability is present on this site?

A.    Cookie Tampering
B.    SQL Injection
C.    Web Parameter Tampering
D.    XSS Reflection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 711
It is an entity or event with the potential to adversely impact a system through unauthorized acces, destruction, disclosure, denial of service or modification of data. Which of the following terms best matches the definition?

A.    Attack
B.    Vulnerability
C.    Threat
D.    Risk

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 712
Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) flaws in software applications?

A.    Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings.
B.    Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data.
C.    Validate and escape all information sent to a server.
D.    Verify acces right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 713
Gavin owns a white-hat firm and is performing a website security audit for one of his clients. He begins by running a scan which looks for common misconfigurations and outdated software versions. Which of the following tools is he most likely using?

A.    Armitage
B.    Nikto
C.    Metasploit
D.    Nmap

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 714
Matthew, a black hat, has managed to open a meterpreter session to one of the kiosk machines in Evil Corp’s lobby. He checks his current SID, which is S-1-5-21-1223352397-1872883824-861252104-501. What needs to happen before Matthew has full administrator access?

A.    He needs to gain physical access.
B.    He must perform privilege escalation.
C.    He already has admin privileges, as shown by the “501” at the end of the SID.
D.    He needs to disable antivirus protection.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 715
Elliot is in the process of exploiting a web application that uses SQL as a back-end database. He is determined that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection and has introduced conditional timing delays into injected queries to determine whether they are successful. What type of SQL injection is Elliot most likely performing?

A.    NoSQL injection
B.    Blind SQL injection
C.    Union-based SQL injection
D.    Error-based SQL injection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 716
You have successfully logged on a Linux system. You want to now cover your track. Your login attempt may be logged on several files located in /var/log. Which file does NOT belong to the list?

A.    wtmp
B.    user.log
C.    btmp
D.    auth.log

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 717
When you return to your desk after a lunch break, you notice a strange email in your inbox. The sender is someone you did business with recently, but the subject line has strange characters in it. What should you do?

A.    Forward the message to your company’s security response team and permanently delete the message from your computer.
B.    Reply to the sender and ask them for more information about the message contents.
C.    Delete the email and pretend nothing happened.
D.    Forward the message to your supervisor and ask for her opinion on how to handle the situation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 718
The “gray box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?

A.    Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
B.    The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C.    The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
D.    Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 719
Log monitoring tools performing behavioral analysis have alerted several suspicious logins on a Linux server occuring during non-business hours. After further examination of all login activities, it is notices that none of the logins have occurred during typical work hours. A Linux administrator who is investigating this problem realized the system time on the Linux server is wrong by more than twelve hours. What protocol used on Linux serves to synchronize the time has stopped working?

A.    NTP
B.    TimeKeeper
C.    OSPF
D.    PPP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 720
The “black box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?

A.    Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
B.    The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C.    The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
D.    Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 721
Which of the following can the administrator do to verify that a tape backup can be recovered in its entirety?

A.    Read the first 512 bytes of the tape.
B.    Perform a full restore.
C.    Read the last 512 bytes of the tape.
D.    Restore a random file.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 722
An LDAP directory can be used to store information similar to a SQL database. LDAP uses a ____ database structure instead of SQL’s ____ structure. Because of this, LDAP has difficulty representing many-to-one relationships.

A.    Strict, Abstract
B.    Simple, Complex
C.    Relational, Hierarchical
D.    Hierarchical, Relational

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 723
What is the purpose of DNS AAAA record?

A.    Address prefix record
B.    Address database record
C.    Authorization, Authentication and Auditing record
D.    IPv6 address resolution record

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 724
Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to Intrusion Detection Systems?

A.    Intrusion Detection Systems can easily distinguish a malicious payload in an encrypted traffic.
B.    Intrusion Detection Systems can examine the contents of the data in context of the network protocol.
C.    Intrusion Detection Systems can be configured to distinguish specific content in network packets.
D.    Intrusion Detection Systems require constant update of the signature library.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 725
During an Xmas scan, what indicates a port is closed?

A.    RST
B.    SYN
C.    ACK
D.    No return response

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 726
Which command can be used to show the current TCP/IP connections?

A.    Netsh
B.    Net use connection
C.    Netstat
D.    Net use

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 727
You are performing information gathering for an important penetration test. You have found pdf, doc, and images in your objective. You decide to extract metadata from these files and analyze it. What tool will help you with the task?

A.    Armitage
B.    Dmitry
C.    Metagoofil
D.    CDPSnarf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 728
You have several plain-text firewall logs that you must review to evaluate network traffic. You know that in order to do fast, efficient searches of the logs you must use regular expressions. Which command-line utility are you most likely to use?

A.    Relational Database
B.    MS Excel
C.    Notepad
D.    Grep

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 729
This phase will increase the odds of success in later phases of the penetration test. It is also the very first step in Information Gathering and it will tell you the “landscape” looks like. What is the most important phase of ethical hacking in which you need to spend a considerable amount of time?

A.    network mapping
B.    footprinting
C.    escalating privileges
D.    gaining access

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 730
When you are collecting information to perform a data analysis, Google commands are very useful to find sensitive information and files. These files may contain information about passwords, system functions, or documentation. What command will help you to search files using Google as a search engine?

A.    site:target.com filetype:xls username password email
B.    domain:target.com archieve:xls username password email
C.    inurl:target.com filename:xls username password email
D.    site:target.com file:xls username password email

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 731
……


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NEW QUESTION 101
A company contracted a firm specializing in penetration testing to assess the security of a core business application. The company provided the firm with a copy of the Java bytecode. Which of the following steps must the firm take before it can run a static code analyzer?

A.    Run the application through a dynamic code analyzer.
B.    Employ a fuzzing utility.
C.    Decompile the application.
D.    Check memory allocations.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 102
A financial institution is asking a penetration tester to determine if collusion capabilities to produce wire fraud are present. Which of the following threat actors should the penetration tester portray during the assessment?

A.    Insider threat
B.    Nation state
C.    Script kiddie
D.    Cybercrime organization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
Which of the following has a direct and significant impact on the budget of the security assessment?

A.    Scoping
B.    Scheduling
C.    Compliance requirement
D.    Target risk

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 104
After performing a security assessment for a firm, the client was found to have been billed for the time the client’s test environment was unavailable. The Client claims to have been billed unfairly. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be able to provide guidance in such a situation?

A.    SOW
B.    NDA
C.    EULA
D.    BRA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 105
During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full administrator privileges on a number of target systems efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password have been unsuccessful. Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts?

A.    Operating system Windows 7
Open ports: 23, 161
B.    Operating system Windows Server 2016
Open ports: 53, 5900
C.    Operating system Windows 8 1
Open ports: 445, 3389
D.    Operating system Windows 8
Open ports: 514, 3389

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106
A client requests that a penetration tester emulate a help desk technician who was recently laid off. Which of the following BEST describes the abilities of the threat actor?

A.    Advanced persistent threat
B.    Script kiddie
C.    Hacktivist
D.    Organized crime

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 107
Which of the following types of physical security attacks does …?

A.    Lock picking
B.    Impersonation
C.    Shoulder surfing
D.    Tailgating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 108
Which of the following reasons does penetration tester needs to have a customer’s point-of-contact information available at all time? (Choose three.)

A.    To report indicators of compromise
B.    To report findings that cannot be exploited
C.    To report critical findings
D.    To report the latest published exploits
E.    To update payment information
F.    To report a server that becomes unresponsive
G.    To update the statement of work
H.    To report a cracked password

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 109
While engaging clients for a penetration test from highly regulated industries, which of the following is usually the MOST important to the clients from a business perspective?

A.    Letter of engagement and attestation of findings
B.    NDA and MSA
C.    SOW and final report
D.    Risk summary and executive summary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 110
An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email to obtain the CEO’s login credentials. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?

A.    Elicitation attack
B.    Impersonation attack
C.    Spear phishing attack
D.    Drive-by download attack

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 111
During an internal penetration test, several multicast and broadcast name resolution requests are observed traversing the network. Which of the following tools could be used to impersonate network resources and collect authentication requests?

A.    Ettercap
B.    Tcpdump
C.    Responder
D.    Medusa

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 112
In a physical penetration testing scenario, the penetration tester obtains physical access to a laptop following as a potential NEXT step to extract credentials from the device?

A.    Brute force the user’s password.
B.    Perform an ARP spoofing attack.
C.    Leverage the BeEF framework to capture credentials.
D.    Conduct LLMNR/NETBIOS-ns poisoning.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 113
A penetration tester is utilizing social media to gather information about employees at a company. The tester has created a list of popular words used in employee profiles. For which of the following types of attack would this information be used?

A.    Exploit chaining
B.    Session hijacking
C.    Dictionary
D.    Karma

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 114
A tester has determined that null sessions are enabled on a domain controller. Which of the following attacks can be performed to leverage this vulnerability?

A.    RID cycling to enumerate users and groups.
B.    Pass the hash to relay credentials.
C.    Password brute forcing to log into the host.
D.    Session hijacking to impersonate a system account.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 115
Joe, a penetration tester, is asked to assess a company’s physical security by gaining access to its corporate office. Joe is looking for a method that will enable him to enter the building during business hours or when there are no employee on-site. Which of the following would be MOST effective in accomplishing this?

A.    Badge cloning
B.    Lock picking
C.    Tailgating
D.    Piggybacking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 116
A client has voiced concern about the number of companies being branched by remote attackers, who are looking for trade secrets. Which of following BEST describes the types of adversaries this would identify?

A.    Script kiddies
B.    APT actors
C.    Insider threats
D.    Hacktrvist groups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
Which of the following CPU register does the penetration tester need to overwrite in order to exploit a simple butter overflow?

A.    Stack pointer register
B.    Index pointer register
C.    Stack base pointer
D.    Destination index register

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 118
After a recent penetration test, a company has a finding regarding the use of dictionary and seasonal passwords by its employees. Which of the following is the BEST control to remediate the use of common dictionary terms?

A.    Expand the password length from seven to 14 characters
B.    Implement password history restrictions
C.    Configure password filters
D.    Disable the accounts after five incorrect attempts
E.    Decrease the password expiration window

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester attempt to do with these?

A.    Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B.    Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C.    Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D.    Attempt privilege escalation attacks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120
A penetration tester is preparing to conduct API testing. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in preparing for this engagement?

A.    Nikto
B.    WAR
C.    W3AF
D.    Swagger

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 121
Drag and Drop
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NEW QUESTION 270
vSphere 6.5 DRS is now Network-Aware. Based on network utilization, when will DRS balance VMs?

A.    DRS will balance VMs when a network resource pool is configured for VMs.
B.    DRS will balance VMs when Network I/O Control is enabled.
C.    DRS will place VMs on initial boot for hosts that have network utilization lower than the threshold.
D.    DRS will vMotion VMs when network utilization is higher than the threshold on a particular host.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 271
What are two requirements in order to restore a Resource Pool Tree from a snapshot? (Choose two.)

A.    A restore can only be performed on the same cluster the snapshot was taken from.
B.    vSphere DRS must be turned on.
C.    vSphere DRS must be turned off.
D.    A restore can only be performed on a vSphere DRS cluster within the original vCenter Server.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 272
What new feature is introduced in NFS 4.1 on ESXi 6.5?

A.    Storage DRS
B.    KRB5i
C.    IPv6
D.    AUTH_SYS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 273
How can a vSphere administrator ensure that a set of virtual machines run on different hosts in a DRS cluster?

A.    Add the VMs to a vApp.
B.    Use a VM-Host affinity rule.
C.    Place the VMs in different folders.
D.    Use a VM-VM affinity rule.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 274
What availability mode does vCenter HA provide?

A.    Active-Standby
B.    Load-balanced
C.    Active-Passive
D.    Active-Active

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 275
To prevent possible failures or issues during a vSphere upgrade, which component should be upgraded first?

A.    virtual machines
B.    datastores
C.    ESXi Hosts
D.    vCenter Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 276
A vSphere Administrator has VM Component Protection (VMCP) enabled, but the VM was not restarted when one of the VMFS datastores experienced an All Paths Down (APD) failure. What two scenarios would explain why the virtual machine was not restarted? (Choose two.)

A.    Insufficient Capacity is available on the failover ESXi hosts.
B.    VM Monitoring is required in order for VMCP to failover during an APD event.
C.    VMware Tools is not installed on the guest operating system for the VM.
D.    The APD failure was corrected before the VM could be restarted.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 277
What is the default space threshold for vSphere Storage DRS?

A.    90%
B.    70%
C.    95%
D.    80%

Answer: D
Explanation:
Load balancing based on Space and IO: Storage DRS dynamically balance the Storage DRS cluster imbalance based on Space and IO threshold set. Default space threshold per datastore is 80% and default IO latency threshold is 15ms.
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2149938

NEW QUESTION 278
Restoration of the vCenter Server Appliance is accomplished using which interface?

A.    vSphere Client
B.    vCenter Server ApplianceGUI Installer
C.    vSphere Web Client
D.    vCenter Server ApplianceMenagement Interface

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 279
What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the maximum reset window for a virtual machine is 24 hours?

A.    Normal
B.    Low
C.    High
D.    Medium

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2014/03/vsphere-ha-vm-monitoring-back-basics.html

NEW QUESTION 280
Group A has permission to download files in Content Library. Group B does not have permission to download files in Content Library. If a user is a member of both groups, what will be the result?

A.    The user can access Content Library.
B.    The user cannot download file from Content Library.
C.    The user cannot access Content Library.
D.    The user can download file from Content Library.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Permission inheritance (not in any order):
* Permissions are additive if not in conflict so user gets permissions from both groups.
* Permissions at lower level in hierarchy has precedence.
* Permissions on user has precedence over Group
* Deny permissions has precedence over Allow.
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.bsa.doc_40/vc_admin_guide/managing_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_multiple_permission_settings.html

NEW QUESTION 281
Which is the correct sequence to upgrade a vSphere infrastructure?

A.    vCenter Server > ESXi host > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
B.    vCenter Server > ESXi host > VM compatibility > VMware Tools
C.    ESXi host > vCenter Server > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
D.    ESXi host > vCenter Server > VM compatibility > VMware Tools

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 282
When attempting to migrate a virtual machine to another host in the same cluster, the error message “Select a valid compute resource” returns. What could cause this error?

A.    VMware Tools is not installed.
B.    Both hosts are not sharing the same datastore.
C.    Virtual machine has an ISO attached.
D.    Both hosts run different versions of ESXi.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 283
Which two statements are true for a vCenterServer user account that is used for vSphere Data Protection (VDP)? (Choose two.)

A.    The password for the user account cannot contain spaces.
B.    The user account should be created in the Single Sign-On domain.
C.    The user account must be assigned with Administrator role.
D.    The user account cannot inherit required permissions from a group role.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
For the vCenter server account used for vSphere data protection, the user account must have administrator role and the password for the user account should not contain spaces.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/vmware-data-protection-administration-guide-61.pdf

NEW QUESTION 284
Which two tasks should a vSphere administrator perform if the vmkernel.log reports VMFS metadata errors? (Choose two.)

A.    reformat the datastore
B.    ignore the messages
C.    contact VMware technical support
D.    check the device with VOMA

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Use vSphere On-disk Metadata Analyser (VOMA) to identify and fix incidents of metadata corruption that affect file systems or underlying logical volumes ……
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc/GUID-6F991DB5-9AF0-4F9F-809C-B82D3EED7DAF.html

NEW QUESTION 285
When using VMware Converter to import a Windows server and improve the consistency of the destination virtual machine, which optional step can be performed immediately prior to powering down the source server?

A.    Uninstall production applications.
B.    Perform a final synchronization task.
C.    Remove the server from the Active Directory domain.
D.    Remove the server from the network.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 286
Which three statements are correct regarding booting an ESXi Host from Fibre Giannel SAN? (Choose three.)

A.    Direct connect topology is supported.
B.    Multipathing to a boot LUN on an active-passive array is supported.
C.    ESXi hosts do not require local storage.
D.    Each host must have its own boot LUN.
E.    Hosts can share one common boot LUN.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
When you use boot from SAN with multiple ESXi hosts, each host must have its own boot LUN. If you configure multiple hosts to share the same boot LUN, ESXi image corruption is likely to occur. Multipathing to a boot LUN on active-passive arrays is not supported because the BIOS does not support multipathing and is unable to activate a standby path.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-8FAD881D-7A00-43C9-AB69-66DC7816968C.html

NEW QUESTION 287
Which two storage technologies are supported for MSCS? (Choose two.)

A.    VAAI
B.    NFS
C.    iSCSI
D.    FC

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 288
Which statement regarding datastore clusters meets VMware’s recommended best practices?

A.    Clusters should contain only datastores presented from the same storage array.
B.    Clusters should contain only datastores with equal hardware acceleration capability.
C.    Clusters should contain only datastores using the same connection method (iSCSI, FC, etc.).
D.    Clusters should contain only datastores with the same capacity.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 289
When will vSphere Data Protection delete the expired backup image of a Platform Service Controller?

A.    After the expired backup image is restored.
B.    During the next backup window following expiry.
C.    During the next maintenance window following expiry.
D.    Immediately after the retention period has expired.

Answer: D
Explanation:
During maintenance periods, VDP examines the backups in the appliance and evaluates whether the backup retention period has expired. If it as expired, VDP removes the expired backup from the appliance.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/vmware-data-protection-administration-guide-60.pdf

NEW QUESTION 290
……


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NEW QUESTION 71
A company plans to automate specific sections of a customer service call center solution. You must develop a bot that can be used on the company’s website to provide answers to frequently asked questions (FAQ). You must create a bot that includes the existing FAQs by using Azure Bot Service with QnA Maker. You need to test the bot. What are two ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    MSBot
B.    Bot Framework Emulator
C.    Web chat in Azure portal
D.    ngrok

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 72
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot. The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly. You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot. What should you implement?

A.    The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B.    The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
C.    The Skype Chanel and Speech priming using a LUIS app.
D.    The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 73
You develop a payment processing solution by using a .NET Framework application. Customer data is spread across multiple Azure SQL Database servers and is not sharded. When a payment is made from one person to another person, data may be changed in multiple databases at once. You need to ensure transactional atomicity across databases. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    In the solution, use the OpenConnectionForKey function to reference each database that will be included during a distributed transaction.
B.    In Azure PowerShell, create a new communication relationship between each database that requires distributed transactions.
C.    Use the Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordination (MS DTC) service to configure distributed transactions between each database.
D.    In the solution, create new SqlConnection objects for each database that will be included during a distributed transaction.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview#transactions-across-multiple-servers

NEW QUESTION 74
You are developing a .NET Core on-premises application that updates multiple Azure SQL Database instances. The application must log all update commands attempted to a separate Azure SQL database instance named AuditDb. You define an outer TransactionScope with a loop to enumerate and run the SQL commands on each customer database connection and an inner TransactionScope to record all transactions attempted within the outer TransactionScope to the AuditDb database. You need to develop a method to perform the updates to the databases. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– All rows written to the AuditDb database must be committed even if the outer transaction fails.
– If an error occurs writing to the AuditDb database, the outer transaction must be rolled back.
– If an error occurs writing to the Customer databases, only the outer transaction must be rolled back.
– Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the customer databases.
– Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the AuditDb database.
Which TransactionScopeOption values should you use?

A.    Required for TransactionScopeOption and Required for AuditTranScopeOption
B.    Required for TransactionScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTransScopeOption
C.    Suppress for TransactionScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTranScopeOption
D.    Suppress for TransactionScopeOption and RequiresNew for AuditTranScopeOption

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/transactions/implementing-an-implicit-transaction-using-transaction-scope?view=netframework-4.7.2

NEW QUESTION 75
You have implemented code that uses elastic transactions spanning across three different Azure SQL Database logical servers. Database administrators report that some transactions take longer to complete than expected. You need to use the correct tool to monitor all the transactions originating from the elastic transaction implementation. Which tool should you use?

A.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_transactions dynamic management view.
B.    Use the dependencies section of Azure Applications Insights.
C.    Run the sys.dm_tran_current_snapshot dynamic view.
D.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_snapshot_database_transactions dynamic management view.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview

NEW QUESTION 76
A company named Contoso Ltd., has a single-domain Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Contoso is preparing to migrate all workloads to Azure. Contoso wants users to use single sign-on (SSO) when they access cloud-based services that integrate with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to identify any objects in Active Directory that will fail to synchronize to Azure AD due to formatting issues. The solution must minimize costs. What should you include in the solution?

A.    Azure Advisor
B.    Password Export Server version 3.1 (PES v3.1) in Active Directory Migration Tool (ADMT)
C.    Azure AD Connect Health
D.    Microsoft Office 365 IdFix

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 77
You host an on-premises ASP.NET Web API at the company headquarters. The Web API is consumed by applications running at the company’s branch offices using the Azure Relay service. All the users of the applications are on the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to ensure that the applications can consume the Web API. What should you do?

A.    Create separate AD groups named Senders and Receivers.
In Access Control (IAM) for the relay namespace, assign Senders the Reader role and assign Receivers the Reader role.
B.    Create a Shared Access policy for send permissions and another for Receive permissions.
C.    Create dedicated Azure AD identities named Sender and Receiver.
Assign Sender the Azure AD Identity Reader role.
Assign Receiver the Azure AD Identity reader role.
Configure applications to use the respective identities.
D.    Create a Shared Access policy for the namespace.
Use a connection string in the Web API and use a different connection string in consumer applications.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-relay/relay-authentication-and-authorization

NEW QUESTION 78
You create an Azure Time Series Insights event handler. You need to send data over the network as efficiently as possible and optimize query performance. What should you do?

A.    Use a Tag ID.
B.    Use reference data.
C.    Send all properties.
D.    Create a query plan.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 79
Your company has 300 virtual machines hosted in a VMWare environment. The virtual machines vary in size and have various utilization levels. You plan to move all the virtual machines to Azure. You need to recommend how many and what size Azure virtual machines will be required to move the current workloads to Azure. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use to make the recommendation?

A.    Azure Advisor Recommendations
B.    Azure Cost Management
C.    Azure Pricing Migrate
D.    Azure Pricing Calculator

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/pricing/details/azure-migrate/

NEW QUESTION 80
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster. The cluster contains Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016 Datacenter. The hosts are licensed under a Microsoft Enterprise agreement that has Software Assurance. The Hyper-V cluster contains 30 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each virtual machine runs a different workload. The workloads have predictable consumption patterns. You plan to replace the virtual machines with Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. The virtual machines will be sized according to the consumption pattern of each workload. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the compute costs of the Azure virtual machines. Which two recommendations should include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure a spending limit in the Azure account center.
B.    Activate Azure Hybrid Benefit for the Azure virtual machines.
C.    Purchase Azure reserved Virtual Machine Instances for the Azure virtual machines.
D.    Create a lab in Azure DevTest Labs and place the Azure virtual machines in the lab.
E.    Create a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/pricing/hybrid-benefit/

NEW QUESTION 81
You have 100 Standard_F2s_v2 Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has two network adapters. You need to increase the network performance of the workloads running on the virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– The CPU-to-memory ratio must remain the same.
– The solution must minimize costs.
What should you do?

A.    Configure NIC teaming.
B.    Enable SR-IOV.
C.    Install an additional network adapter.
D.    Enable RDMA over InfiniBand.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/create-vm-accelerated-networking-powershell?toc=%2fazure%2fvirtual-machines%2fwindows%2ftoc.json

NEW QUESTION 82
You plan to develop an Azure Stream Analytics job that ingests streaming data from legacy SaaS, and cloud applications. The data will be used to launch workflows which perform data analysis. You need to select Azure resources to handle the data input and output for the solution. Which resources should you use?

A.    Input: Event Hub, output: IoT Hub
B.    Input: Blobs, output: IoT Hub
C.    Input: Event Hub, output: Service Bus
D.    Input: Event Hub, output: Azure SQL database

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 83
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid. You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the executions of the app. What should you configure when you create the function app?

A.    The Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan.
B.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.
C.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier
D.    The Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale

NEW QUESTION 84
Hotspot
You have 20 Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 based on a custom virtual machine image. Each virtual machine hosts an instance of a VSS-capable web app that was developed in-house. Each instance is accessed by using a public endpoint. Each instance uses a separate database. The average database size is 200 GB. You need to design a disaster recovery solution for individual instances. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide a recovery time objective (RTO) of six hours.
– Provide a recovery point (RPO) of eight hours.
– Support recovery to a different Azure region.
– Support VSS-based backups.
– Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 85
Drag and Drop
You are developing an IoT solution. The solution requires bidirectional communication between a .NET application and Azure IoT Hub. You need to obtain connection information for a single test device. Which three commands should you use to develop the solution? (To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 86
……


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NEW QUESTION 83
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Cosmos DB account. You need to recommend a solution to generate an alert from Azure Log Analytics when a request charge for a query exceeds 50 request units more than 20 times within a 15-minute window. What should you recommend?

A.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure an alert threshold of 20 and a period of 15.
B.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20 and requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure a period of 15.
C.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15 and a frequency of 20.
D.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 84
You are designing a data protection strategy for Azure virtual machines. All the virtual machines are in the Standard tier and use managed disks. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
– The use of encryption keys is audited.
– All the data is encrypted at rest always.
You manage the encryption keys, not Microsoft. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker)
B.    Azure Storage Service Encryption
C.    Client-side Encryption
D.    Azure Disk Encryption

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-overview

NEW QUESTION 85
You have 100 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2 and host Microsoft SQL Server 2012 R2 instances. The instances host databases that have the following characteristics:
– The largest database is currently 3 TB.
– None of the databases will ever exceed 4 TB.
– Stored procedures are implemented by using CLR.
You plan to move all the data from SQL Server to Azure. You need to recommend an Azure service to host the databases. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Whenever possible, minimize management overhead for the migrated databases.
– Minimize the number of database changes required to facilitate the migration.
– Ensure that users can authenticate by using their Active Directory credentials.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure SQL Database single databases
B.    Azure SQL Database Managed Instance
C.    Azure SQL Database elastic pools
D.    SQL Server 2016 on Azure virtual machines

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 86
You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web application. The web application will send data daily. You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the following requirements:
– Sends email notification when data is received from IoT devices.
– Minimizes compute cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action.
B.    Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding.
C.    Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action.
D.    Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 87
You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on-premises physical server workloads. Each server workload is independent of the other. The workloads are stateless. You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on-premises data center fails, the workloads are available in Azure as quickly as possible. Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Latest
B.    Latest app-consistent
C.    Latest multi-VM processed
D.    Latest processed

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-failover

NEW QUESTION 88
You plan to move a web application named App1 from an on-premises data center to Azure. App1 depends on a custom framework that is installed on the host server. You need to recommend a solution to host App1 in Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– App1 must be available to users if an Azure data center becomes unavailable.
– Costs must be minimized.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    In two Azure regions, deploy a Traffic Manager profile and a web app.
B.    In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set.
C.    Deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set across two availability zones.
D.    In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a web app.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 89
You have an on-premises deployment of MongoDB. You plan to migrate MongoDB to an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the MongoDB API. You need to recommend a solution for migrating MongoDB to Azure Cosmos DB. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    mongorestore
B.    Data Migration Assistant
C.    Azure Storage Explorer
D.    Azure Cosmos DB Data Migration Tool

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/mongodb-migrate

NEW QUESTION 90
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the following requirements:
– Ensures that application can access the data by using a REST connection.
– Hosts 20 independent tables of varying sizes and usage patterns.
– Automatically replicates the data to a second Azure region Minimizes costs.
What should you recommend?

A.    an Azure SQL Database elastic database pool that uses active geo-replication
B.    tables in an Azure Storage account that uses geo-redundant storage (GRS)
C.    tables in an Azure Storage account that use read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GR)
D.    an Azure SQL database that uses active geo-replication

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 91
You deploy two instances of an Azure web app. One instance is in the East US Azure region and the other instance is in the West US Azure region. The web app uses Azure Blob storage to deliver large files to end users. You need to recommend a solution for delivering the files to the users. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that the users receive files from the same region as the web app that they access.
– Ensure that the files only need to be updated once.
– Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure File Sync
B.    Distributed File System (DFS)
C.    read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
D.    geo-redundant storage (GRS)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 92
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive workload that performs financial risk modelling. You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch. You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
– Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?

A.    Basic A-series virtual machines
B.    low-priority virtual machines
C.    burstable virtual machines
D.    Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

NEW QUESTION 93
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All user accounts are syncrhonized from an onpermises Directory and are configured for federated authentication. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) servers are published for external connnection by using a farm Application proxy servers. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the servers that integrate with Azure AD. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Identify any AD FS issue and their potential resolutions.
– Identify any directory synchronization configuration issues and their potential resolutions.
– Notify administrations when there are any issue affecting directory synchronization or AD FS operations.
Which monitoring solution should you recommend for each server type? (To answer, drag the appropriate monitoring solution to the correct types. Each monitoring solution may be used once, than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 94
Drag and Drop
You need to design an architecture to capture the creation of users and the assignment of roles. The captured data must be stored in Azure Cosmos DB. Which Azure services should you include in the design? (To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct targets. Each service may be used once. more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 95
Hotspot
You plan to deploy logical Azure SQL Database servers to The East US Azure region and the Wen US Azure region. Each server will contain 20 database accessed by a different user who reads in a different on premises location. The databases will be configured to use active geo-replication. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
– Restricts user access to each database.
– Restricts network access to each database based on each user’s respective location.
– Ensures that the databases remain accessible from down applications if the local Azure region fails.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 96
Hotspot
Your company has three branch offices and an Azure subscription. Each branch office contains a Hyper-V host that hosts application servers. You need to recommend a storage solution for the branch offices. The solution must ensure that the application servers can connect to a central storage device by using iSCSI connections. Data saved to the iSCSI storage device from the application servers must be uploaded to Azure automatically. Which components should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storsimple/storsimple-ova-overview

NEW QUESTION 97
Drag and Drop
You have standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet. You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails. Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? (To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 98
Drag and Drop
You have an on-premises network that uses on IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new azure subscription. You identity the following technical requirements. All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet subnet1. All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on premises severs. The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site to site VPN. You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct subnet. Each network address may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 99
Hotspot
Your company has an API that returns XML data to internal applications. You plan to migrate the applications to Azure. You also plan to allow the company’s partners to access the API. You need to recommend an API management solution that meets the following requirements:
– Internal applications must receive data in the JSON format once the applications migrate to Azure.
– Partner applications must have their header information stripped before the applications receive the data.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/deploy-new-installations/delegate-installations?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 100
Hotspot
Your company has 20 web APIs that were developed in-house. The company is developing 10 web apps that will use the web APIs. The web apps and the APIs are registered in the company’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The web APIs are published by using Azure API Management. You need to recommend a solution to block unauthorized requests originating from the web apps from reaching the web APIs. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Use Azure AD-generated claims.
– Minimize configuration and management effort.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 101
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NEW QUESTION 451
When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.    Distributed
B.    Standalone
C.    Bridge

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 452
Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

A.    RADIUS
B.    Active Directory Query
C.    Remote Access
D.    Certificates

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 453
How are the backups stored in Chock Point appliances?

A.    Saved as xxx.tar under /var/log/Cpbackup/backups
B.    Saved as xxx.tgz under /var/cppbackup
C.    Saved as xxx.tar under /var/cppbackup
D.    Saved as xxx.tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 454
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.    URL Filtering and Network
B.    Network and Threat Prevention
C.    Application Control and URL Filtering
D.    Network and Application Control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 455
It is best practice to have a ____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

A.    Explicit Drop
B.    Implied Drop
C.    Explicit Cleanup
D.    Implicit Drop

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456
How many sessions can be opened on the Management Server at the same time?

A.    Unlimited, one per each licensed gateway.
B.    One.
C.    Unlimited, multiple per administrator.
D.    Unlimited, one per administrator.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 457
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ____ mode.

A.    Main
B.    Authentication
C.    Quick
D.    High Alert

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458
What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

A.    Application Control DLP
B.    Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall
C.    ACL SandBlast, MPT
D.    IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 459
Which identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

A.    AD Query
B.    Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent
C.    Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication
D.    RADIUS and Account Logon

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 460
The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to delect and block malware.

A.    Next Generation Threat Prevention
B.    Next Generation Threat Emulation
C.    Next Generation Threat Extraction
D.    Next Generation Firewall

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 461
The position of an Implied rule is manipulated in the ____ window.

A.    NAT
B.    Firewall
C.    Global Properties
D.    Object Explorer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 462
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A.    SmarrUpda-re
B.    cpconfig
C.    SmarrConsole
D.    sysconfig

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 463
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?
……

NEW QUESTION 464
What type of NAT is one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A.    Source
B.    Static
C.    Hide
D.    Destination

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/9321/FILE/WP0018a.pdf

NEW QUESTION 465
What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsoles tab and the Install Policy button within a specific policy?

A.    The Global one also saves and publishes the session before installation.
B.    The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.
C.    The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.
D.    The second one pre-selects the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 466
To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A.    Protections
B.    IPS Protections
C.    Profiles
D.    ThreatWiki

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 467
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

A.    Access Role
B.    User Group
C.    SmartDirectory Group
D.    Group Template

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 468
What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

A.    Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.
B.    Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.
C.    To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D.    Used to better optimize a policy.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 469
Which icon indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A.    Pencil
B.    Padlock
C.    Book
D.    Eyeglasses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 470
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

A.    SmartUpdate installation.
B.    DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic.
C.    USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic.
D.    Cloud based installation.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471
……


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NEW QUESTION 380
Mobile Access supports all of the following methods of Link Translation EXCEPT which?

A.    Hostname Translation (HT)
B.    Path Translation (PT)
C.    URL Translation (UT)
D.    Identity Translation (IT)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 381
Which statement is true of the API server on R80.10?

A.    By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.
B.    By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.
C.    By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).
D.    By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand- alone servers with 8 GB of RAM (or more).

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 382
How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

A.    2 (OS) images
B.    images are chosen by administrator during installation
C.    as many as licensed for
D.    the most new image

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 383
Which deployment methods can an administrator choose when deploying the Sandblast agent?

A.    Manually installing the deployment agent on each workstation.
B.    Use GPO and SCCM to deploy the deployment agent.
C.    Use both SCCM and GPO for the deployment agent and End Point Management to push the Agent.
D.    Use the Configure SandBlast Agent to push the Agent.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 384
Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R80.10 SmartConsole application?

A.    IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation
B.    Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control
C.    IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction
D.    Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 385
What’s true about Troubleshooting option in the IPS profile properties?

A.    Temporarily change the active protection profile to “Default_Protection”.
B.    Temporarily set all protections to track (log) in SmartView Tracker.
C.    Temporarily will disable IPS kernel engine.
D.    Temporarily set all active protections to Detect.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 386
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A.    This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.
B.    This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.
C.    This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
D.    Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 387
Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.    cphaprob interface
B.    cphaprob -l interface
C.    cphaprob -a if
D.    cphaprob stat

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 388
What is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.    Lagging
B.    Synchronized
C.    Never been synchronized
D.    Collision

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 389
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which of these steps should NOT be performed?

A.    Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
B.    Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
C.    Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
D.    Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 390
During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.    Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation.
B.    Host having a Critical event found by IPS.
C.    Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus.
D.    Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 391
What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solutions?

A.    Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
B.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
C.    Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.
D.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 392
You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R80.10. What tool could you use in this process?

A.    migrate export
B.    upgrade_tools verify
C.    pre_upgrade_verifier
D.    migrate import

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 393
After successfully exporting a policy package, how would you import that package into another SMS database in R80.10?

A.    import_package.py
B.    upgrade_import
C.    migrate
D.    cp_merge

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 394
Choose the ClusterXL process that is defined by default as a critical device?

A.    cpp
B.    fwm
C.    assld
D.    fwd

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 395
Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A.    Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules
B.    Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
C.    Automatic Hide NAT
D.    Automatic Static NAT

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 396
Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within ____.

A.    summary
B.    views
C.    reports
D.    checkups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 397
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

A.    Accept
B.    Drop
C.    NAT
D.    None

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 398
As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name `cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

A.    $FWDIR/smartevent/conf
B.    $RTDIR/smartevent/conf
C.    $RTDIR/smartview/conf
D.    $FWDIR/smartview/conf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 399
What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.    fwm compile
B.    fwm load
C.    fwm fetch
D.    fwm install

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 400
What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.    fw ctl stat
B.    clusterXL stat
C.    clusterXL status
D.    cphaprob stat

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 401
What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.    Cloud, Appliance and Private.
B.    Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid.
C.    Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid.
D.    Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 402
……


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