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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is associated to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to federate on-premises Active Directory and the tenant. Azure AD Connect has the following settings:
– Source Anchor: objectGUID
– Password Hash Synchronization: Disabled
– Password writeback: Disabled
– Directory extension attribute sync: Disabled
– Azure AD app and attribute filtering: Disabled
– Exchange hybrid deployment: Disabled
– User writeback: Disabled
You need to ensure that you can use leaked credentials detection in Azure AD Identity Protection.
Solution: You modify the Password Hash Synchronization settings.
Does that meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-secure-steps

NEW QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You create a label named CompanyConfidential in Microsoft Azure Information Protection. You add CompanyConfidential to a global policy. A user protects an email message by using CompanyConfidential and sends the label to several external recipients. The external recipients report that they cannot open the email message. You need to ensure that the external recipients can open protected email messages sent to them.
Solution: You modify the encryption settings of the label.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You have a hybrid Microsoft 365 environment. All computers run Windows 10 and are managed by using Microsoft Intune. You need to create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policy that will allow only Windows 10 computers marked as compliant to establish a VPN connection to the on-premises network. What should you do first?

A.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a new certificate.
B.    Enable Application Proxy in Azure AD.
C.    From Active Directory Administrative Center, create a Dynamic Access Control policy.
D.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure authentication methods.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/vpn/ad-ca-vpn-connectivity-windows10

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 subscription. You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP). You plan to use Microsoft Office 365 Attack simulator. What is a prerequisite for running Attack simulator?

A.    Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA)
B.    Configure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)
C.    Create a Conditional Access App Control policy for accessing Office 365
D.    Integrate Office 365 Threat Intelligence and Windows Defender ATP

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/attack-simulator

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company has 500 computers. You plan to protect the computers by using Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP). Twenty of the computers belong to company executives. You need to recommend a remediation solution that meets the following requirements:
– Windows Defender ATP administrators must manually approve all remediation for the executives.
– Remediation must occur automatically for all other users.
What should you recommend doing from Windows Defender Security Center?

A.    Configure 20 system exclusions on automation allowed/block lists.
B.    Configure two alert notification rules.
C.    Download an offboarding package for the computers of the 20 executives.
D.    Create two machine groups.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/machine-groups-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to create data loss prevention (DLP) queries in Microsoft SharePoint Online to find sensitive data stored in sites. Which type of site collection should you create first?

A.    Records Center
B.    Compliance Policy Center
C.    eDiscovery Center
D.    Enterprise Search Center
E.    Document Center

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/overview-of-data-loss-prevention-in-sharepoint-server-2016-80f907bb-b944-448d-b83d-8fec4abcc24c

NEW QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to enable auditing for all Microsoft Exchange Online users. What should you do?

A.    From the Exchange admin center, create a journal rule.
B.    Run the Set-MailboxDatabase cmdlet.
C.    Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D.    From the Exchange admin center, create a mail flow message trace rule.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/enable-mailbox-auditing

NEW QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are managed by using Microsoft Intune. You plan to view only security-related Windows telemetry data. You need to ensure that only Windows security data is sent to Microsoft. What should you create from the Intune admin center?

A.    a device configuration profile that has device restrictions configured
B.    a device configuration profile that has the Endpoint Protection settings configured
C.    a device configuration policy that has the System Security settings configured
D.    a device compliance policy that has the Device Health settings configured

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-windows-10#reporting-and-telemetry

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), you create a security group named Group1. You add 10 users to Group1. You need to apply app enforced restrictions to the members of Group1 when they connect to Microsoft Exchange Online from non-compliant devices, regardless of their location. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library named Customers. Customers contains a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Case Study 1 – Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam, Inc. is manufacturing company that sells products through partner retail stores. Fabrikam has 5,000 employees located in offices throughout Europe. The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Fabrikam has a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) environment. The company maintains some on-premises servers for specific applications, but most end-user applications are provided by a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to recommend a solution for the user administrators that meets the security requirements for auditing. Which blade should you recommend using from the Azure Active Directory admin center?

A.    Sign-ins
B.    Azure AD Identity Protection
C.    Authentication methods
D.    Access review

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/reports-monitoring/concept-sign-ins

NEW QUESTION 52
An administrator configures Azure AD Privileged Identity Management as shown in the following exhibit:

What should you do to meet the security requirements?

A.    Change the Assignment Type for Admin2 to Permanent.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, assign the Exchange administrator role to Admin2.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, remove the Exchange administrator role to Admin1.
D.    Change the Assignment Type for Admin1 to Eligible.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 53
……

Case Study 2 – Litware, Inc.
Litware, Inc. is a financial company that has 1,000 users in its main office in Chicago and 100 users in a branch office in San Francisco. The network contains a single domain forest. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2016. Users are subject to sign-in hour restrictions as defined in Active Directory. The network has the IP address range shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to create Group2. What are two possible ways to create the group? (Choose two.)

A.    an Office 365 group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
B.    a mail-enabled security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C.    a security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
D.    a distribution list in the Microsoft 365 admin center
E.    a security group in the Azure AD admin center

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 57
Which IP address space should you include in the MFA configuration?

A.    131.107.83.0/28
B.    192.168.16.0/20
C.    172.16.0.0/24
D.    192.168.0.0/20

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 58
……

Case Study 3 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and three branch offices in Seattle, and New York. The company has the offices shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 61
Which user passwords will User2 be prevented from resetting?

A.    User6 and User7
B.    User4 and User6
C.    User4 only
D.    User7 and User8
E.    User8 only

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 62
Which role should you assign to User1?

A.    Global administrator
B.    User administrator
C.    Privileged role administrator
D.    Security administrator

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 63
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Your organization plans to deploy Microsoft 365 in a hybrid scenario. You need to ensure that employees can use a smart card for authentication. Which hybrid identity solution should you implement?

A.    Password hash synchronization with single sign-on.
B.    Active Directory federation Services (AD FS).
C.    Ping federate and federation integration.
D.    Pass-through authentication and single sign-on.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. An employee requests personal data under General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) guidelines. You need to retrieve data for the employee. What should you do?

A.    Create a data subject request case.
B.    Create a retention policy.
C.    Create a data-loss prevention policy.
D.    Create a GDPR assessment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
A company is a Microsoft 365 reseller. The company does not provide managed services or direct customer support. You need to provide licenses for customers and earn commissions for each license sold. What should you do?

A.    Buy licenses for customers by using the Microsoft admin portal.
B.    Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider direct reseller.
C.    Sign up as a Cloud Solution Provider indirect reseller.
D.    Buy licenses for customers from a Microsoft authorized distributor.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online. You need to reserve the issue. What two options can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request.
B.    Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone.
C.    Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 center.
D.    Create a service request from the SharePoint portal.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 5
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You install Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus on five devices. You deactivate one device. Which task can you perform on the deactivated device?

A.    Print a document.
B.    Leave a comment in a document.
C.    Start a new document from a template.
D.    Set properties on a document.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
You use Microsoft 365 Usage Analytics. You need to know the number of users who are active today and were also active last month. Which metric should you use?

A.    MoMReturningUsers
B.    EnabledUsers
C.    ActiveUsers
D.    CumulativeActiveUsers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
An organization plans to deploy Microsoft Office 2019 of Office 365 ProPlus. What are two advantages of Office 365 ProPlus? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Features remain constant through the lifetime of the applications.
B.    Office 365 ProPlus includes downgrade rights.
C.    A single license may be deployed to multiple devices.
D.    Fully functional Office mobile apps are free to install and use.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 8
A company plans to migrate to Microsoft 365. Employees must be able to collaborate by using Microsoft Yammer, SharePoint Online, Staff Hub, and Teams. You must minimize costs. You need to subscribe to Microsoft Office 365. Which subscription type should you use?

A.    E3
B.    ProPlus
C.    E1
D.    Personal
E.    F1

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
An organization has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to implement multi-factor authentication. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You must provide infrastructure recommendations. All proposed solutions must minimize costs. You need to identify the appropriate cloud model for the given scenarios. Which cloud models should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate cloud models to the correct requirements. Each cloud model may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
A company is purchasing a Microsoft 365 subscription to replace the current on premises IT infrastructure. You need to identify the impacts of subscribing to Microsoft 365. Which three outcomes can the company expect? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Predictable Microsoft licensing costs.
B.    Increased Exchange Server Client Access license (CAL) costs.
C.    Increased Windows Server Client Access License (CAL) costs.
D.    Increased service scalability.
E.    Decreased on-premises infrastructure maintenance.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 12
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company runs SharePoint Server and Exchange Server in an on-premises datacenter. The site collection for the finance department is currently encrypted using third party software. You need to move as many services to Microsoft 365 as possible. What should you do?

A.    Migrate all SharePoint data and Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365.
B.    Leave SharePoint data for finance department users on-premises.
Migrate all other SharePoint data and Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365.
C.    Leave mailboxes for finance department users on-premises.
Migrate all other SharePoint data and Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365.
D.    Leave SharePoint data and mailboxes for finance department users on premises.
Migrate al other SharePoint data and Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following cable types should be used to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router?

A.    Thunderbolt
B.    Coaxial
C.    USB
D.    Ethernet

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician is replacing a broken screen on a new company laptop but does not have repair information from the vendor. Which of the following is the BEST way to proceed?

A.    Document and label the cable and screw locations.
B.    Replace the screen with a non-OEM.
C.    Update the firmware on the device before repairing it.
D.    Wait for the vendor to provide more information.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following charging and data ports has a non-directional connector?

A.    Micro-USB
B.    Mini-USB
C.    USB-A
D.    USB-C

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Multiple users report that the network printer, which is connected through the print server, is not printing. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to remedy this situation?

A.    Replace the USB cable.
B.    Reinstall the drivers on users’ PCs.
C.    have users restart their PCs.
D.    Clear the print queue.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following cloud computing concepts allows scalable services to be provided to the client?

A.    On-demand
B.    Metered
C.    Rapid elasticity
D.    Resource pooling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
An end user has signed up to use a web-based calendar application. Which of the following solutions has the user purchased?

A.    DaaS
B.    SaaS
C.    PaaS
D.    laaS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
A technician wants to block remote logins to a server. Which of the following ports should be blocked?

A.    21
B.    23
C.    80
D.    443

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
A network administrator must install a device that will proactively stop outside attacks from reaching the LAN. Which of the following devices would BEST meet the organization’s needs?

A.    IPS
B.    IDS
C.    Proxy server
D.    Authentication server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following devices can be used to connect multiple devices within broadcasting to every network port?

A.    Unmanaged switch
B.    Hub
C.    Firewall
D.    Cable modern

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following features will save the battery life of a laptop significantly if they are disabled? (Choose two.)

A.    Touchpad
B.    Volume
C.    Screen orientation
D.    Cellular
E.    Bluetooth
F.    Fingerprint reader

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following technologies can be used for wireless payments?

A.    NFC
B.    Bluetooth
C.    IR
D.    LTE

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following resources in the MOST critical when using cloud file-storage synchronization applications?

A.    Disk speed
B.    I/O bandwidth
C.    RAM utilization
D.    CPU utilization

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
A technician is installing a private PC in a public workspace. Which of the following password practices should the technician implement on the PC to secure network access?

A.    Remove the guest account from the administrators group.
B.    Disable single sign-on.
C.    Issue a default strong password for all users.
D.    Require authentication on wake-up.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the amount of memory a user is limited to with a 32-bit version of Windows?

A.    2 GB
B.    4 GB
C.    8 GB
D.    16 GB

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following security methods BEST describes when a user enters a username and password once for multiple applications?

A.    SSO
B.    Permission propagation
C.    Inheritance
D.    MFA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
A technician needs to edit a protected .dll file but cannot find the file in the System32 directory. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use?

A.    System
B.    Display
C.    Folder Options
D.    Indexing Options

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following installation types would require the use of an answer file to install the OS?

A.    Unattended
B.    Clean
C.    Repair
D.    Upgrade

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
With which of the following types is a man-in-the-middle attack associated?

A.    Brute force
B.    Spoofing
C.    DDoS
D.    Zero-day

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
A network administrator has given a technician documentation detailing the switchports the technician will need to patch in for a network upgrade. Which of the following documents did the network administrator MOST likely give to the technician?

A.    Process diagram
B.    Physical network diagram
C.    Fiber backbone diagram
D.    Logical topology diagram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
A network administrator notifies a technician that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Several internal Windows PCs are the source of the traffic. The network administrator gives the technician the Windows computer names and states they be scanned and cleaned immediately. With which of the following types of infections are the PCs MOST likely infected? (Choose two.)

A.    Spyware
B.    Zombies
C.    Virus
D.    Ransomware
E.    Worm
F.    Botnet

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 9
A user calls the help desk regarding a new Windows issues that started in the morning. The user can no longer use any locally attached devices, such as a mouse or a printer, and a reboot did not fix the problem. Which of the following would MOST likely fix the issue?

A.    Roll back updates
B.    Disable the Windows Update service
C.    Check for updates
D.    Restore hidden updates

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
A technician is setting up a SOHO wireless network for a healthcare office that does not have a server. The user requires the highest level of wireless security and various levels of desktop authentication to access cloud resources. Which of the following protocols and authentication methods should the technician implement? (Choose two.)

A.    WPA
B.    WPA2
C.    WEP
D.    TKIP
E.    RADIUS
F.    Multifactor
G.    TACACS
H.    SSO

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 11
A junior Linux system administrator needs to update system software. Which of the following shell commands would allow the administrator to gain the necessary permissions to update the software?

A.    sudo
B.    chmod
C.    grep
D.    pwd

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
A desktop technician is attempting to upgrade several machines to Windows 10. After releasing there is only one disc for the installation, the technician decides to upgrade over the network. Which of the following boot methods initiates such an upgrade?

A.    SSD
B.    Optical drive
C.    Flash drive
D.    PXE

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
A technician is working on a user’s workstation and notices a lot of unknown processes running in the background. The user informs the technician that an application was recently downloaded from the Internet. Which of the following types of infection does the user MOST likely have?

A.    Rootkit
B.    Keylogger
C.    Trojan
D.    Ransomware

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following is considered government-regulated data?

A.    PII
B.    End-user License Agreement
C.    Digital Millennium Copyright Act
D.    DRM

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following technologies is used by malicious employees to obtain user passwords?

A.    Man-in-the-middle
B.    Phishing
C.    Tailgating
D.    Shoulder Surfing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
A user is getting an error message when trying to go to a website. A technician asks the user a few questions to find out more about the issue. The technician opens a browser locally and browses to the same site as the user. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the technician using by browsing to the same site?

A.    Establish a plan of action.
B.    Gather information.
C.    Duplicate the problem.
D.    Find the root cause.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a compiled language?

A.    Perl
B.    JScript
C.    Java
D.    PowerShell

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Joe, a developer, is writing a program in which he needs to store a number that changes over the duration of the program’s run. Which of the following would Joe MOST likely use to accomplish this?

A.    Loop
B.    Variable
C.    Constant
D.    Function

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD. Which of the following components would accomplish this task?

A.    Optical drive
B.    Hard disk drive
C.    Solid state drive
D.    Flash drive

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following security concerns is a threat to confidentiality?

A.    Replay attack
B.    Denial of service
C.    Service outage
D.    Dumpster diving

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was performed?

A.    Data correlation
B.    Data manipulation
C.    Data gathering
D.    Data definition

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business?

A.    Contract
B.    Patent
C.    Copyright
D.    Trademark

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
A user wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. Which of the following would be the BEST choice to accomplish this task?

A.    Thunderbolt cable
B.    Bluetooth module
C.    Infrared port
D.    WLAN card

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
A technician is called to replace a display for a workstation. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect the display to the workstation?

A.    USB
B.    NFC
C.    DSL
D.    DVI

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to execute a program? (Choose two.)

A.    Windows 7
B.    Windows 8
C.    UNIX
D.    Windows Server 2012
E.    Android
F.    Linux

Answer: CF

NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable to hold a postal code?

A.    Integer
B.    String
C.    Float
D.    Boolean

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
A technician has been asked to assign an IP address to a new desktop computer. Which of the following is a valid IP address the technician should assign?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    172.16.2.189
C.    192.168.257.1
D.    255.255.255.0

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol?

A.    Document sharing software
B.    Instant messaging software
C.    Conferencing software
D.    Email software

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
The sales department needs to keep a customer list that contains names, contact information, and sales records. This list will need to be edited by multiple people at the same time. Which of the following applications should be used to create this list?

A.    Database software
B.    Word processing software
C.    Conferencing software
D.    Presentation software

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
……

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NEW QUESTION 191
You must optimize an IPv6 wireless design to ensure that RA packets from routers can be trimmed to a minimum frequency that still maintains IPv6 client connectivity. Which configuration do you use?

A.    RA throttling
B.    AAA Override for IPv6 ACLs
C.    IPv6 ACLs
D.    RA guard

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 192
A wireless engineer is doing a pre-site survey. Which two attributes must match between the site survey and the production clients? (Choose two.)

A.    AP type
B.    radio frequency
C.    mobility patterns
D.    user
E.    exact location

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 193
A network engineer is retrofitting an existing building wired with Category 5e with AP 3800 and mGig switches. Which cable length allows for 5G operation?

A.    70 m
B.    120 m
C.    130 m
D.    150 m

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 194
While evaluating a post-installation WLAN deployment, problems are occurring when a client roams from one AP to another. The client bounces back and forth between APs. Which two items can be checked to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Check if the roaming settings in the AP are set properly for non-CCX clients.
B.    Check the RF levels of the first AP as the client moves toward the second AP.
C.    Check the client RSSI and SNR levels for both APs at the roaming point.
D.    Simplify 802.1X/EAP by moving from external RADIUS to local authentication.
E.    Check that the client roaming parameters are set properly.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 195
Which design limitation of dual-band WLAN must be considered when end-user devices stream real- time applications and services utilizing dual-band SSID?

A.    It can cause packet loss in the real-time path.
B.    It can cause jitter and degrade overall network throughput.
C.    It can cause short-term signal loss from collisions.
D.    It can cause gaps in the real-time traffic path.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 196
An engineer is performing a predictive RF design of a typical office environment. Which value is the most likely attenuation of a cubical wall for this environment?

A.    2 dBi
B.    12 dBd
C.    1 dB
D.    12 mW

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 197
What is the minimum RSSI signal for a data WLAN?

A.    -65 dBm
B.    -67 dBm
C.    -72 dBm
D.    -80 dBm

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 198
What is the Cisco-recommended cell overlap percentage for a typical RToWLAN network design?

A.    5 to 10
B.    at least 20
C.    a maximum of 20
D.    at least 50

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 199
An initial meeting has been scheduled for a proposed site survey of a customer headquarters location. Which two types of information would be valuable to collect prior to the formal kickoff meeting? (Choose two.)

A.    Number of branch locations
B.    Plans for branch expansion
C.    Number of customers
D.    Business type
E.    Site type (urban, suburban, external environmental sensitivity, etc.)

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 200
A user is running a new video conferencing application on their laptop and is being disconnected as they move from one access point to another. Which situation will cause these disconnects?

A.    P2P blocking is denying connections
B.    FT is not supported by all clients
C.    AAA override needs to be enabled
D.    WMM must be changed to disabled

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 201
An engineer is shipping equipment, including a battery, for a wireless survey overseas. To ensure that it is accepted onto the aircraft, the battery must comply with which standard?

A.    EC
B.    FCC
C.    IATA non-restricted
D.    FAA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 202
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the WMM designations from the left onto the correct 802.1P priority queues on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 203
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
What is true about the [homes] section in smb.conf?

A.    It is a template used for all home directories of users on the Samba server.
B.    Users can access their home directory only by accessing the share with the name homes.
C.    It is a template used for all user created shares on the Samba server.
D.    The maximum number of homes shares per used can be limited using the parameter usershare max homes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following options can be used to limit access to a share? (Choose two.)

A.    untrusted users
B.    write list
C.    valid users
D.    valid groups
E.    accept list

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 3
When a Windows domain controller is used, which of the following is assigned a Windows Security Identifier? (Choose three.)

A.    Users
B.    Servers
C.    Groups
D.    Departments
E.    Companies

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 4
Which service unifies Linux/UNIX and Windows NT account management by allowing a UNIX box to become a full member of an NT domain?

A.    Winbind
B.    PAM
C.    NIS
D.    OpenLDAP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
When upgrading a Samba 3 to a Samba 4 Active Directory domain using samba-tool domain classicupgrade, what is true? (Choose three.)

A.    All machines have to re-join the new domain.
B.    The profiles of the users remain unchanged.
C.    Samba configures its internal NTP server to synchronize the systems clocks of all domain members.
D.    The user accounts and machine accounts are migrated into the new database.
E.    A basic set of DNS records required for AD operation is provisioned.

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 6
After finishing configuring of a Unix client to authenticate with a Microsoft Active Directory server, login attempts are unsuccessful. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

A.    Unix Client support is disabled in the Active Directory configuration.
B.    The PAM library is searching the directory with the default search filter.
C.    The slapd daemon is not running.
D.    The user account in Active Directory has the remote login setting disabled.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
Which command with Samba 3 would be used to search for all available workgroups/domains and NetBIOS names?

A.    nmblookup
B.    findsmb
C.    smbget
D.    winbrowse

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which service unifies Linux and Windows account management by allowing a Linux system to include Windows domain users in the Linux user database?

A.    Winbind
B.    PAM
C.    NIS
D.    OpenLDAP

Answer: A
Explanation:
Samba winbind provides a unified login experience between UNIX or Linux and Windows systems by letting users log on to a UNIX or Linux host by using Windows domain credentials.

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following properties does the configuration option cachesize in slapd.conf refer to?

A.    The number of entries to be cached.
B.    The size of the cache in bytes.
C.    The size of the cache in bits.
D.    The minimum cache size in bytes.
E.    The maximum cache size in bytes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Which schema file is required by OpenLDAP?

A.    inetorgperson.schema
B.    core.schema
C.    openldap.schema
D.    cosine.schema
E.    misc.schema

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Which one of the following is true about single sign-on?

A.    Single sign-on is different than identity consolidation.
B.    Single sign-on requires sending the same credentials to several services.
C.    Single sign-on requires that the credentials for different services are distinct.
D.    Single sign-on requires a smartcard.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
It’s important to issue the Start TLS operation at the beginning of a session ____.

A.    to compress any data sent over the network and improve performance
B.    to prevent usernames and passwords from being sent in plain text
C.    to ensure backward compatibility with older clients
D.    to prevent clients from binding to the server anonymously

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following parameters can be used in a Samba configuration in order to execute scripts on the server? (Choose three.)

A.    add printer script
B.    add user script
C.    add group script
D.    add user to group script
E.    add share script

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following parameters is used in the database on a slave server to direct clients that want to make changes to the OpenLDAP database to the master server?

A.    updatedn
B.    updateserver
C.    updateref
D.    updateuri

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
When configuring OpenLDAP to use certificates, which option should be used with the TLSVerifyClient directive to ask the client for a valid certificate in order to proceed normally?

A.    never
B.    allow
C.    try
D.    demand

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which port in TCP/IP communication is used for Kerberos v5?

A.    888
B.    86
C.    88
D.    90

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17
Which option for the pam_ldap module specifies a file from which the module’s global settings can be read?

A.    default
B.    global
C.    config
D.    include

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following ports are open by default on a Samba 4 Active Directory Domain Controller? (Choose three.)

A.    443/TCP
B.    138/TCP
C.    389/TCP
D.    445/TCP
E.    53/TCP

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 19
Which of the following parameters can be used in the file DB_CONFIG? (Choose two.)

A.    set_cachesize
B.    set_cachepath
C.    set_db_type
D.    set_db_path
E.    set_lg_max

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 20
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
What happens when a merge conflict occurs in git? (Choose two.)

A.    The conflicting files remain unchanged in the local repository.
B.    Conflict markers are added to the files.
C.    A new branch containing the remote changes is created.
D.    The affected files are flagged as conflicting.
E.    The newest version is placed in the local repository.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands lists the cookbooks available on a Chef server?

A.    kitchen cookbook list
B.    chef-client cookbook list
C.    chef-server cookbook list
D.    chef-solo cookbook list
E.    knife cookbook list

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following functions are provided by the Ansible apt module? (Choose two.)

A.    Update an installed package to the latest version.
B.    Update the list of available packages from configured repositories.
C.    Re-compile an installed package from the source code.
D.    Add the URL of a new repository to the package manager configuration.
E.    Install a dpkg based Linux distribution on an empty target system.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/modules/apt_module.html

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following container names could have been assigned automatically by Docker?

A.    docker-c00001
B.    2.0.17.172
C.    container
D.    c0023817
E.    clever_ritchie

Answer: E
Explanation:
https://docs.docker.com/v17.09/engine/userguide/networking/default_network/container-communication/

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following tasks are completed by docker-compose down when it is used with additional parameters? (Choose two.)

A.    Delete all volumes defined in the composer file.
B.    Delete all containers defined in the composer file.
C.    Delete all networks defined in the composer file.
D.    Delete all images used in the composer file from the Docker nodes.
E.    Delete all images built from the composer file from their registry.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.docker.com/compose/reference/down/

NEW QUESTION 6
Which section of the Prometheus configuration defines which nodes are monitored?

A.    scrape_config
B.    targets
C.    rules
D.    listener
E.    nodes

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
Which sections can exist in a Logstash configuration file? (Choose three.)

A.    output
B.    filter
C.    input
D.    forward
E.    generate

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://www.elastic.co/guide/en/logstash/current/configuration-file-structure.html

NEW QUESTION 8
A service should be provided to arbitrary clients on the Internet using HTTPS. Any standard client on the Internet should be able to consume the service without further configuration. Which of the following approaches can be used to implement these requirements? (Choose three.)

A.    Configure the web servers to not use a server certificate when serving HTTPS.
B.    Generate a self-signed certificates during the deployment of each backend server.
C.    Use a certificate issuing service to request certificates during each server deployment.
D.    Use a load balancer that decrypts incoming requests and passes them on in plain HTTP.
E.    Install a wildcard certificate and the respective private key on all the backend servers.

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 9
How does Vagrant run virtual machines?

A.    Vagrant uses a vagrant-specific hypervisor called VagrantVM.
B.    Vagrant has to be run within a running virtual machine which is not controlled by Vagrant.
C.    Vagrant ships with an embedded version of VirtualBox.
D.    Vagrant uses so-called provides which control external hypervisors such as VirtualBox.
E.    Vagrant generates virtual machine images but does not provide a mechanism to run them.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following sections must exist in a Packer template?

A.    images
B.    provisioners
C.    builders
D.    variables
E.    post-processsors

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following elements are presents in a Vagrant box file? (Choose two.)

A.    A Vagrant guest configuration file that is used to create instances of the box.
B.    Configuration files for provisioners such as Ansible.
C.    The installer for the Vagrant version which is required to run the box.
D.    A metadata file describing the box and its requirements.
E.    A base file system image in a format supported by the provider of the box.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 12
What is tested by unit tests?

A.    The syntactical correctness of the source code of a software component.
B.    The formal validity of a service’s external REST API.
C.    The integration of multiple component of the same software.
D.    The correctness of a specific function of a software component.
E.    The throughput, load capacity and latency of a service.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You export a Microsoft Excel workbook from Dynamics 365. The workbook contains 10,000 rows of data. You email the workbook and a description of the data to another user. The user reports that they can only see 500 rows of data. You need to determine why the user cannot view all the data. Why is the user unable view all available data?

A.    You exported a static worksheet.
The user does not have the appropriate security role in Dynamics 365 to see all records.
B.    You exported a PivotTable worksheet.
The user does not have the appropriate security role in Dynamics 365 to see all records.
C.    You created a chart in Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement and exported the chart.
D.    You ran a report in Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement and then saved the report as an Excel file.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You create a business rule for the Case form. The business rule marks some fields as required when the Created On date field does not equal the Modified On date field. You activate the business rule. The form does not mark the specified fields as required when the condition is met. You need to determine the cause of the issue. What is the cause?

A.    the Created On and Modified On date fields are not included on the form
B.    the Created On and Modified On date fields are in a hidden tab on the form
C.    the Created On and Modified On are system fields and cannot be used in business rules
D.    the fields to be required are set to Optional at the field property level

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/create-business-rules-recommendations-apply-logic-form

NEW QUESTION 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator for a company. The vice president of sales must be able to read account data for her business unit and other business units that report to her. You need to configure the minimum level of access for the read privilege on the Account entity. Which access level should you assign?

A.    Business Unit
B.    Organization
C.    User
D.    Parent: Child Business Unit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You implement Dynamics 365 for a customer. The customer wants to use Microsoft OneNote in Dynamics for a custom entity. The OneNote tab does not appear in the Timeline. You need to make the tab visible. What is the first action you should perform?

A.    Enable the entity for Microsoft SharePoint document management.
B.    Grant access in the user’s security role.
C.    Check document management for the entity in the default solution.
D.    Grant access under the user’s product licenses.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365

NEW QUESTION 5
You create and share a Microsoft Flow button for the Account entity. The button sends a Microsoft Teams meeting invitation from Dynamics. Which users can view the flow button run history?

A.    Each user can only view their run history.
B.    System administrator may only view the run history.
C.    Only the user who creates the button can view the run history for all users.
D.    Every user can view all run history.
E.    People with the appropriate role can see all run history.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/flow/share-buttons

NEW QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You use the Data Performance tool. There are 14 items in the All Data Performance Logs view. Some log items detail positive operational impact percentages while others detail negative operational percentages. Users report that the system is less responsive than in the past. You need to improve system performance.
Solution: Select optimize for log items that have optimizations available and that have a positive operational impact percentage.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
On a Contact record, a user creates a note that contains the word running. One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the note. You need to find the note.
Solution: Use Relevance Search to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service developer. You have a solution that uses release version 2.4.2.6. You clone the solution and apply an update. You must assign the cloned solution a new version number using the Microsoft recommended versioning system. You need to set the version number for the new solution. Which version number should you set?

A.    2.4.3.7
B.    2.5.0.1
C.    2.5.3.6
D.    3.1.2.7

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/use-segmented-solutions-patches-simplify-updates

NEW QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service developer. You create a custom entity and add custom fields to the case entity. You must create a solution to include only the custom entity and case entity changes. The solution must allow import and export without errors. You need to create the solution. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add an existing unused entity to the solution.
Rename the entity to the custom entity.
Add fields needed for the case entity.
B.    Create a case entity in the new solution and add the custom fields to the new case entity.
C.    Create the custom entity and custom fields in the case entity within the default solution.
D.    Create the custom entity in the new solution and add the appropriate fields, forms, and views.
E.    Create a new solution and add the entity named Case to the solution.
Add the custom fields to the case entity.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator for a Sandbox and a Production instance. A user forgets to sign out from a shared device connected to a Production instance. A second user makes changes to records using the credentials of the first user. You need to implement user session timeouts to prevent this type of issue from recurring. Where should you configure this feature?

A.    each instance of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) associated to the tenant
B.    each user in Microsoft 365 admin center
C.    each user in Dynamics 365
D.    each Dynamics 365 instance

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
HotSpot
You are a Dynamics 365 help desk administrator. You need to create a dashboard that displays information on help desk cases that are handled each week. Which dashboard components should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator. An Excel template with a pivot table is created for opportunities by a manager. When a salesperson opens the Excel template in the My Opportunities view, they observe the following issues:
– The salesperson can view information for all salespeople.
– The salesperson does not see their current data.
You need ensure the salesperson can only see their information. Which Excel PivotTable attributes should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct settings. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. Users report that a subgrid from the Onsite Goals custom entity takes a very long time to load on the Account records page. You need to improve the query load time and optimize the Onsite Goals entity. Which action should you perform?

A.    In an Internet browser, in the browser options, set the option to retain browser history.
B.    In the Data Perform view, use the Optimize functions.
C.    In System Jobs, resume paused system jobs.
D.    In the Dynamics 365 Diagnostic tool, run the diagnostic test.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You receive an email notification that you have reached 80 percent of your Dynamics 365 storage limit. You perform the following actions to free up space:
– Delete known items that use large amount of storage.
– Perform bulk deletes on suspended system jobs.
– Delete audit logs older than six months old.
– Delete email attachments older than two years old.
The total storage used indicator shows that the storage amount has not changed after you perform the actions. You need to determine why the storage amount has not changed. What is the cause?

A.    The current audit log cannot be deleted.
B.    Email attachments can only be deleted when the associated email is deleted.
C.    The system can take up to 24 hours to update storage information.
D.    Suspended workflows are in a waiting state, therefore cannot be deleted.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/free-storage-space

NEW QUESTION 15
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You set up server-side synchronization. You plan to deploy the Dynamics 365 App for Outlook after users have received training. Users do not have administrator rights. You need to identify which method you would use to deploy Dynamics 365 App for the trained users. Which method will accomplish this goal?

A.    Push the App for Outlook to all eligible users from the Dynamics 365 administration center.
B.    Have users install themselves directly from the Dynamics 365 Settings area.
C.    Have users install themselves from the personal Settings area.
D.    Push the App for Outlook to only select users from Dynamics 365 Settings area.
E.    Push the App for Outlook manually or automatically to all eligible users from Dynamics 365 Settings area.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……

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NEW QUESTION 441
When in Normal mode in VI, which character can be used to begin a reverse search of the text?

A.    ?
B.    /
C.    F
D.    r

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 442
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following directories are documentation files found?

A.    /usr/share/documentation
B.    /usr/local/share/documentation
C.    /var/share/doc
D.    /usr/share/doc
E.    /etc/share/doc

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 443
Which of the following commands converts spaces in a file to tab characters and prints the result to standard output?

A.    iconv
B.    expand
C.    unexpand
D.    tab

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 444
What does the command grub-install /dev/sda do?

A.    GRUB creates partitions on the device /dev/sda to be used with Linux.
B.    GRUB sets the default BIOS boot device to /dev/sda.
C.    GRUB installs all required files and configures the boot loader on device /dev/sda.
D.    GRUB recompiles the Linux Kernel and installs it on the Master Boot Record of device /dev/sda.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 445
Which of the following partition types is used for Linux swap spaces when partitioning hard disk drives?

A.    82
B.    83
C.    8e
D.    fd
E.    7

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 446
Which of the following commands prints a list of available package updates when using RPM-based package management?

A.    dpkg list
B.    yum list
C.    dpkg check-update
D.    yum check-update
E.    yum list-update

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 447
When planning a partition scheme, which of the following directories could be considered for separate partitions? (Choose three.)

A.    /etc
B.    /home
C.    /var
D.    /lib
E.    /opt

Answer: BCE

NEW QUESTION 448
How can the list of files that would be installed by the RPM package file apache-xml.rpm be previewed?

A.    rpm –qp apache-xml.rpm
B.    rpm –qv apache-xml.rpm
C.    rpm –ql apache-xml.rpm
D.    rpm –qpl apache-xml.rpm

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 449
Which command will uninstall a package but leave its configuration files in case the package is re-installed?

A.    dpkg –s pkgname
B.    dpkg –L pkgname
C.    dpkg –P pkgname
D.    dpkg –r pkgname

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 450
Which command is used to query information about the available packages on a Debian system?

A.    apt-cache
B.    apt-get
C.    apt-search
D.    dpkg
E.    dpkg-search

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 451
Which of the following apt-get commands will install the newest versions of all currently installed packages?

A.    auto-update
B.    full-upgrade
C.    dist-upgrade
D.    install
E.    update

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 452
Which of the following commands is used to change metadata and options for ext3 filesystems?

A.    mod3fs
B.    tune3fs
C.    mod2fs
D.    tune2fs
E.    dump2fs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 453
Which of the following are filesystems which can be used on Linux root partitions? (Choose two.)

A.    NTFS
B.    ext3
C.    XFS
D.    VFAT
E.    swap

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 454
Which of the following commands is used to modify quota settings? (Choose two.)

A.    editquota
B.    setquota
C.    edquota
D.    quotaedit
E.    quotaset

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 455
Which of the following commands enables the setuid (suid) permission on the executable /bin/foo?

A.    chmod 1755 /bin/foo
B.    chmod 4755 /bin/foo
C.    chmod u-s /bin/foo
D.    chmod 755+s /bin/foo

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 456
Which of the following options must be passed to a filesystem’s entry in /etc/fstab in order to mount the file system without root privileges?

A.    auto
B.    norestrict
C.    noauto
D.    user

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 457
Which of the following commands will load a kernel module along with any required dependency modules?

A.    depmod
B.    insmod
C.    modprobe
D.    module_install
E.    loadmod

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 458
Which of the following commands instructs SysVinit to reload its configuration file?

A.    reinit
B.    init reload
C.    telinit 7
D.    telinit q
E.    init reinit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 459
Which of the following describes the correct order in which the components of the system boot process are started?

A.    BIOS, kernel, bootloader, init system.
B.    BIOS, bootloader, kernel, init system.
C.    Bootloader, BIOS, kernel, init system.
D.    BIOS, bootloader, init system, kernel.
E.    Bootloader, BIOS, init system, kernel.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 460
Where does the BIOS search for a bootloader?

A.    On all connected storage media regardless of the boot device order.
B.    On all connected storage media in the defined boot device order.
C.    Only on hard disk drives in the defined boot device order.
D.    Only on the last added storage media.
E.    The BIOS is not responsible to search for a valid bootloader.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 461
……

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NEW QUESTION 101
Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?

A.    XDPing
B.    CDF Control
C.    XenDesktop Site Checker
D.    HDX Monitor

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which three capabilities will directly influence whether the new environment will require new or upgraded hardware or supporting infrastructure for the dedicated resource pools? (Choose three.)

A.    Current virtualization and storage solutions
B.    Client devices and mobility requirements
C.    Existing access infrastructure
D.    Users and applications
E.    Existing printing infrastructure
F.    Network architecture

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 103
Which piece of License Server information does a Citrix Administrator need in order to allocate and download the XenDesktop license file from mycitrix.com?

A.    IP Address
B.    MAC Address
C.    Hostname
D.    FQDN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 104
Scenario:
While assessing User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices. Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without incurring extra costs and maintenance. The architect needs to identify which type of Citrix Receiver to recommend for 25 task workers in a remote location where installation of Citrix Receiver is NOT possible. The workers do NOT require any device mappings. Which type of Citrix Receiver should the architect recommend?

A.    Native Receiver
B.    Receiver for Web
C.    Receiver for Chrome
D.    HTML 5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 105
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Machine Creation Services has been selected for image management. Which storage feature should the architect consider to lower storage cost with minimal impact to performance?

A.    Read caching
B.    Storage tiering
C.    Thin provisioning
D.    Data de-duplication

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 106
Scenario:
During an assessment of a Citrix Infrastructure, a Citrix Architect finds that there are four active Sites. Each Site has one NetScaler SDX pair and two StoreFront servers in a server group to allow access for internal and external users. Users have to use different URLs when they access resources from different Sites. Single-factor authentication is used for both internal and external access. NetScaler appliances are placed in the DMZ with the appropriate firewall ports configured to allow Citrix traffic. Many of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops and some external users also connect using personal devices. Management is planning to create one more Site and has asked the architect to perform scalability testing and advise how many NetScaler appliances are needed for the new Site. What is the primary determining factor that the architect can use to help identify the appropriate NetScaler platform in this scenario?

A.    SSL VPN
B.    SSL Throughput
C.    ICA Proxy
D.    Ethernet Ports

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 107
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a XenDesktop environment. The Engineer group requires the use of NVIDIA hardware with shared virtualized GPUs due to their use of graphical applications. Management wants to use the following components within the XenDesktop environment to meet these requirements:
– NVIDIA GRID Tesla M60 GPUs
– Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2012 R2
– Windows 7 virtual machines XenDesktop LTSR 7.15
Which component must the architect change in order to implement this use case?

A.    Windows 7 virtual machines
B.    NVIDIA GRID Tesla M60 GPUs
C.    XenDesktop LTSR 7.15
D.    Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2012 R2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 108
What are three considerations for using thin clones with Machine Creation Services? (Choose three.)

A.    Higher storage space requirements than full clones.
B.    Relatively difficult to backup or restore compared to full clones.
C.    Slower provisioning speed compared to full clones.
D.    Slower performance than full clones.
E.    Higher storage impact during a boot storm.

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 109
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is conducting a security assessment. During the assessment, the architect gathers the following Hardware Layer requirements from the customer:
– Reduce the attack surface of the XenServer resource pools.
– Prevent unauthorized access to NFS storage.
– Encrypt Administrative connections to the XenServer resource pools.
Which three practices should the architect recommend so that the organization can meet its objectives? (Choose three.)

A.    Configure target and host authentication to limit who can mount the file system.
B.    Remove the current management VLAN connection to the Internet.
C.    Install certificates from a trusted certificate authority on hypervisor hosts.
D.    Use XenServer Direct Inspect APIs to implement Hypervisor Introspection.
E.    Configure LUN zoning and LUN masking.

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 110
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect must perform a Provisioning Services (PVS) design for a healthcare organization. The initial design places all PVS farm components in the organization’s primary datacenter. The customer asks whether the vDisk can be streamed from PVS servers in the primary datacenter to target devices located in a secondary datacenter in another region while maintaining good performance. The datacenters are connected with a 10 GB link with approximately 20ms of latency. The architect recommends against the organization pursuing this approach. Which statement is a relevant reason for the recommendation?

A.    The configuration does NOT provide sufficient bandwidth for streaming traffic.
B.    This configuration does NOT provide sufficient connectivity between the PVS servers and the farm database.
C.    This configuration prevents the Subnet Affinity feature from being implemented.
D.    This configuration would include too much latency for the streaming traffic.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 111
Scenario:
During an assessment of a Citrix Infrastructure, a Citrix Architect finds that there are four active Sites. Each Site has one Citrix ADC SDX pair and two StoreFront servers in a server group to allow access for internal and external users. Users have to use different URLs when they access resources from different Sites. Single-factor authentication is used for both internal and external access. Citrix ADC appliances are placed in the DMZ with the appropriate firewall ports configured to allow Citrix traffic. Endpoint scanning is being used to ensure that an updated antivirus client is installed on BYO devices. Many of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops and some external users also connect using their own devices. Which two risks can the architect identify from this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Separate URLs are used to access different Sites.
B.    The Citrix ADC appliance is placed in the DMZ.
C.    Personal devices are being used.
D.    Single-factor authentication is used.
E.    There is no automatic failover between different Sites.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 112
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is using Radius and LDAP as dual-factor authentication. The architect is migrating to Citrix Cloud and wants to retain the same authentication procedure for XenApp and XenDesktop service in Citrix Cloud. Which deployment strategy should the architect use for Citrix ADC and StoreFront to ensure that the solution complies with the existing security policies of the company without incurring additional costs?

A.    Use Citrix Cloud Gateway service and on-premises StoreFront.
B.    Set up a new Citrix ADC VPX instance and StoreFront on-premises.
C.    Use Citrix Cloud Gateway service and Citrix Cloud Workspace.
D.    Set up Citrix ADC with bring-your-own license (BYOL) and StoreFront in a public cloud.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 113
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The XenDesktop design requires enabling TLS encryption between components to ensure Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance. A PCI audit determines that TLS must be used for communication with the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. Which three tasks should the architect perform to enable TLS on VDA machines? (Choose three.)

A.    Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the VDA machine image to enable TLS.
B.    Enable TLS for Delivery Groups on the Delivery Controller.
C.    Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the Delivery Controllers.
D.    Enable TLS for the XenDesktop Site.
E.    Deploy certificates to the Delivery Controller.
F.    Deploy certificates to the VDA machines.

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 114
Scenario:
At a consumer goods company, a XenApp 6.5 environment is hosted on XenServer 6.5. The IT team is migrating to XenApp and Desktop service on Citrix Cloud. Server OS machines will be hosted on-premises and Desktop OS machines will be hosted on Microsoft Azure. Which Citrix Smart Tool can reduce the cost of running XenApp and XenDesktop in public clouds?

A.    Smart Check
B.    Smart Migrate
C.    Smart Build
D.    Smart Scale

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 115
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which four capabilities will directly influence whether users are currently able to connect to an alternative datacenter if the primary datacenter becomes unavailable? (Choose four.)

A.    Disaster recovery plan and implementation.
B.    Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments.
C.    Current hypervisor and storage solutions.
D.    Existing access infrastructure.
E.    Windows Server and Active Directory environment.
F.    Client devices and mobility requirements.
G.    Network architecture.

Answer: DEFG

NEW QUESTION 116
……

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NEW QUESTION 161
What is the function of 802.11 Management frames?

A.    Manage the BSS.
B.    Manage the flow of data.
C.    Communicate configuration changes between WLAN controller and APs.
D.    Prioritize network administration traffic.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 162
Which one of the statements regarding the Frame Control field in an 802.11 MAC header is true?

A.    Only Control frames have a Frame Control field.
B.    The Frame Control field contains three sub-fields and eight one-bit flags.
C.    The Frame Control field is used to communicate the duration value.
D.    The Frame Control field is always set to 0.

Answer: D
Explanation:
This field is simply used to indicate which protocol version of 802.11 is being used by the frame. This is always set to “0”.
https://mrncciew.com/2014/09/27/cwap-mac-header-frame-control/

NEW QUESTION 163
What should the To DS and From DS flags be to set to in an Association Response frame?

A.    To DS = 0, From DS = 0.
B.    To DS = 0, From DS = 1.
C.    To DS = 1, From DS = 0.
D.    To DS = 1, From DS = 1.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://dalewifisec.wordpress.com/2014/05/17/the-to-ds-and-from-ds-fields/

NEW QUESTION 164
An RST frame should be acknowledged by which frame?

A.    Ack
B.    CTS
C.    Block-Ack
D.    RTS-Ack

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 165
Which one of the following is not an 802.11 Management frame?

A.    Action
B.    Authentication
C.    PS-Poll
D.    Beacon

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 166
What is the difference between a Data frame and a QoS-Data frame?

A.    QoS Data frames include a QoS control field.
B.    QoS Data frames include a QoS information element.
C.    QoS Data frames include a DSCP control field.
D.    QoS Data frames include an 802.1Q VLAN tag.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 167
What is an AIFS?

A.    A form of aggregation performed at the PLCP sub-layer.
B.    The shortest period of time a STA can sleep.
C.    A medium access method introduced by 802.11n, but never implemented.
D.    A variable Interframe Space introduced by 802.11e to help prioritize medium access for different Access Categories.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 168
Which one of the following statements describes the function of WMM Admission Control?

A.    APs guarantee Voice and Video access categories priority over the WLAN medium.
B.    APs control access to the wireless medium by polling STAs for data packets.
C.    APs regulate the available bandwidth in an attempt to provide a guarantee of the amount of time that a STA has available to access the channel.
D.    Provides a new 802.11 Authentication method for Voice devices.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 169
The PLCP sublayer provides framing by adding a header to create what type of data unit?

A.    MSDU
B.    MPDU
C.    PSDU
D.    PPDU

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 170
What Interframe space would be expected between a CTS and a Data frame?

A.    SIFS
B.    DIFS
C.    AIFS
D.    PIFS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 171
How does a VoIP Phone, using WMM Power Save, request data frames buffered at the AP?

A.    The VoIP phone transmits a PS-Poll frame.
B.    The VoIP phone transmits a trigger frame.
C.    The VoIP phone sets the More Data bit in the MAC Header to 1.
D.    The VoIP phone transmits a WMM Action frame.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 172
What is encrypted within the fourth frame of the 4-Way Handshake?

A.    PMK
B.    PTK
C.    GMK
D.    GTK

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 173
Which one of the following is not a valid reason for an AP to fail a STAs association?

A.    Requesting station has the wrong PSK.
B.    Does not support the specified authentication algorithm.
C.    AP is unable to handle additional associations.
D.    Requesting station does not support all the required data rates.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174
During a VHT Transmit Beamforming sounding exchange, the beamformee transmits a Compressed Beamforming frame to the beamformer. What is communicated within this Compressed Beamforming frame?

A.    Steering Matrix
B.    Beamforming Matrix
C.    Feedback Matrix
D.    Beamformee Matrix

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 175
You are analyzing a packet decode of a Probe Request and notice the SSID element has a length of zero. What do you conclude about transmitting STA?

A.    The WLAN adaptor is configured in promiscuous mode.
B.    The STA is operating in Ad-Hoc mode.
C.    The STA’s WLAN adaptor is disabled.
D.    The STA is discovering a list of available BSSs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 176
What is the default 802.11 authentication method for a STA when using Pre-RSNA?

A.    Open System
B.    Shared Key
C.    4-Way Handshake
D.    PSK

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.eefocus.com/book/08-06/435201276057579.html

NEW QUESTION 177
What does the value of the Listen Interval field in an Association request frame indicate?

A.    How long a STA performing active scanning will listen for Probe Responses before changing channels.
B.    How often a STA will go off channel to look for other BSSs.
C.    How often a STA in power save mode wakes up to listen to Beacon frames.
D.    How long a STA waits for an Ack before retransmitting the frame.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://mrncciew.com/2014/10/28/802-11-mgmt-association-reqresponse/

NEW QUESTION 178
When performing protocol analysis, you notice a high number of RTS/CTS frames being transmitted on an HT network. You suspect this may be due to HT protection mechanisms. Where in the Beacon frame would you look to determine which one of the four HT protection modes the AP is operating in?

A.    HT Protection Element
B.    HT Information Element
C.    HT Operation Element
D.    Non-HT Present Element

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 179
Where, in a protocol analyzer, would you find an indication that a frame was transmitted as part of an AMPDU?

A.    The HT Operation Element.
B.    A-MPDU flag in the HT Control Field.
C.    A-MPDU flag in the Frame Control Field.
D.    The Aggregation flag in the Radio Tap Header.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 180
How many frames make up the Group Key Handshake excluding any Ack frames that may be required?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 181
……

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NEW QUESTION 319
Which statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CEF should be enabled.
B.    CEF should be disabled.
C.    Packet with source 0.0.0.0 destination 255.255.255.255 will be permited.
D.    Packet with source 0.0.0.0 destination 255.255.255.255 will be denied.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 320
How can we limit the number of simultaneous access to the VTY lines?

A.    session-limit
B.    something about ACL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 321
What command can be used to troubleshoot GRE issues?

A.    show dmvpn
B.    show ip interface brief
C.    show ip route

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 322
Routes are not advertised in the GRE tunnel. What is the problem?

A.    Implement dynamic routing in tunnel interfaces
B.    ACLs are blocking packets

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 323
A firewall has been inserted between 2 routers running GRE. Which protocol needs to be allowed through on the firewall?

A.    Create a firewall rule to allow IP protocol 47.
B.    Create a firewall rule to allow TCP/IP Port 47.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 324
How to apply an IPv6 access-list to lines?

A.    ipv6 access-group <ipv6 access-list name>
B.    ipv6 access-list <ipv6 access-list name>
C.    ipv6 access-class <ipv6 access-list name>

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 325
Which VPN technology allow unicast, multicast and private addressing? (Choose two.)

A.    GRE
B.    IPSec VPN
C.    GET VPN
D.    DMVPN

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 326
Which system architect allow GRE and IPSec perform routing separately?

A.    Server-client
B.    Peer-to-peer
C.    Headend
D.    Backend

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 327
What causes GRE tunnel interface to be in down/down state?

A.    The source interface is administrative shutdown.
B.    The destination interface is down/not reachable.
C.    Wrong source/destination addressing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 328
Which statement indicates a cause for Tunnel0’s connection failure?

A.    The tunnel source interface is in an up/down state and the tunnel destination is recursively routing as a result.
B.    The tunnel destination interface is flapping, which causes the tunnel to go up and down.
C.    The tunnel is configured with the wrong encapsulation.
D.    The tunnel destination is intermittently reachable via multiple routing protocols

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 329
Which statement is true for IPv6 access list commands?

A.    deny ipv6 any any log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 330
Refer to the exhibit:

PC was not configured to obtain default-gateway from the DHCP server. What can we do for PC to access the Internet?

A.    Configure static ARP in gateway router.
B.    Configure dynamic ARP in gateway router.
C.    Configure proxy-ARP in gateway router.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 331
Refer to the exhibit:
Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
condition 2: int g0/2 …
Router##no debug condition 1
What is the output of “show debug condition”?

A.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
condition 2: int g0/2 …
B.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/2 …
C.    Router#show debug condition
condition 1: int g0/1 …
D.    Router#show debug condition
condition 2: int g0/2 …

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 332
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NEW QUESTION 370
In which management platform do you use Windows PoweShell to configure, deploy and manage systems?

A.    Cisco UCS Central.
B.    Cisco IMC.
C.    HCL tool in cisco UCS.
D.    Cisco UCS Desired state configuration resource.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 371
Which statement about how Cisco UCS Manager provides two-factor authentication is true?

A.    The AAA server generates one-time tokens for users during the login process.
B.    Cisco UCS Manager generates one-time tokens for users during the login process.
C.    The AAA server validates password and a token server validates the token.
D.    The AAA server validates the password and token.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 372
You need to add additional DNS entries to UCS Manager. Where would you configure the addition DNS server information?

A.    Admin Tab
B.    LAN Tab
C.    Service Profile Template
D.    Equipment Tab

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 373
Which two method can you use to import and update a system configuration by using Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)

A.    Truncate
B.    Merge
C.    Replace
D.    Purge
E.    Restore

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 374
Which two descriptions of user locales in a Cisco UCS domain are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A locale defines a default language and timezone in UCS Manager.
B.    A locale can contain more than one organization.
C.    A locale is same as an organization.
D.    User assigned to a locale can manage an organization hierarchically within the locale.
E.    A UCS user can be assigned to only one locale.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 375
Which two policy resolution control options are available when registering a Cisco UCS domain in UCS Manager and UCS Central? (Choose two.)

A.    Global
B.    Universal
C.    Server
D.    Local
E.    Host

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 376
Which two of the following does the Cisco integrated Management Control support for managing standalone Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)

A.    XML
B.    SoL
C.    SMASH CLP
D.    Virtual KVM
E.    SSH

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 377
Which two methods does Cisco UCS Manager use to create a fabric port channel? (Choose two.)

A.    By using the chassis connectivity policy settings for a spesific chassis after chassis discovery.
B.    By using the LAN connectivity policy settings during chassis discovery.
C.    By using the SAN policy settings during chassis discovery.
D.    By using the global chassis discovery policy settings.
E.    By using the lan connectivity policy settings for a spesific interface after chassis discovery.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101.html#concept_5D3D88341BFB43468B62B5A77876C67B

NEW QUESTION 378
An SD Card on a Cisco UCS C220 M4 Rack Server is in a degraded RAID state. To resolve the issue, which type of policy do you create in the associated service profile?

A.    A disk scrub.
B.    A FlexFlash scrub.
C.    A local disk configuration that uses RAID 1 moirrored mode.
D.    A bios settings scrub.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c-series-rack-servers/whitepaper-c11-734876.html

NEW QUESTION 379
You must generate Phyton scripts for operations performed from cisco UCS Manager. Which API must you use?

A.    convert_to-ucs_phyton
B.    get_managed_objects
C.    export_ucs_session
D.    watch_ucs_event

Answer: A
Explanation:
Use convert_to_ucs_python() to quickly script UCS tasks. Cisco UCS is an Integrated Compute Infrastructure that has supported an XML API since its introduction. UCS Manageris the service that provides the XML API endpoint along with a graphical interface and a command line.
https://learninglabs.cisco.com/modules/ucs-python-sdk-introduction/ucsm-python-sdk-101/step/1

NEW QUESTION 380
When you use a SAN boot which option do you configure?

A.    A UEFI boot target on the device that stores the operating system image.
B.    A boot target LUN on the device that stores the operating system image.
C.    An iSCSI boot profile.
D.    A CIMC secure boot policy.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 381
You want to modify a service profile that is bound to an updating template. Which description of the relationship between the service profile and the updating template is true?

A.    The service profile is updated automatically when the updating template changes.
B.    Changes to the updating template apply only the service profiles created after the template is updated.
C.    The service profile is updated after the server reboots.
D.    The updating template can be changed only before the service profile is implemented.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 382
You must use a Cisco UCS maintenance policy to create a deferred deployment that is independent of operating system actions. What must you include in the maintenance?

A.    Description
B.    Schedule
C.    BIOS policy
D.    Reboot policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 383
On a Cisco Unified Computing System, which port type must the destination for an Ethernet traffic monitoring session be?

A.    Unified uplink port
B.    Unconfigured Ethernet port
C.    Uplink Ethernet port
D.    Ethernet port-channel uplink port

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/System-Monitoring/3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_System_Monitoring_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_GUI_System_Monitoring_Guide_3_1_chapter_01011.html#task_E918F6BF24364F10A19F2B2F95FFC6B9

NEW QUESTION 384
You make a change to a local disk policy of a service profile, and the server to a which it was attached reboots without warning. Which action prevents this issue from occuring in other service profiles?

A.    Bind the service profile to a service profile template.
B.    In the service profile template create a maintenance policy that uses the user-ack option.
C.    In the local disk policy select the protect configuration check box.
D.    In the service profile set the soft shutdown timer to Never.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 385
When running MultiHop FcOE, where are the FC frames de-encapsulated from Ethernet?

A.    at the first switch
B.    at each FCoE hop
C.    at the target device
D.    at the first native FC switch

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/ieee-802-1-data-center-bridging/white_paper_FCIAFCoE.pdf

NEW QUESTION 386
You plan to register a Cisco UCS domain to a Cisco UCS Central System. UCS central will determine the policy configuration. Which policy reolution mode must you use when you register the Cisco UCS domain?

A.    Private
B.    Global
C.    Central
D.    Local

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 387
Drag and Drop
You are integrating the data center infrastructure into Cisco UCS Director. You must configure each infrastructure component by using the correct account type. Drag and Drop account types from the left onto the correct infrastructure components on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 388
Which solution enables Cisco devices to be monitored with automated support capabilities?

A.    Connected service assurances
B.    Cisco Intersight
C.    Cisco Intelligent Monitoring Agent
D.    Two-Tier smart agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 389
Which statement is true regarding backup operations in Cisco UCS Manager?

A.    A user can perform incremental backups of a system configuration.
B.    Passwords and other sensitive information are encrypted in full state backups.
C.    Scheduled backups are not available.
D.    Each backup destination can have multiple backup operations.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 390
Which option must you use to regenaret the default keyring for Cisco UCS Manager?

A.    OpenSSL Server
B.    Certificate Authority
C.    UCS Manager GUI
D.    UCS Manager CLI

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 391
You are configuring Cisco UCS connectivity. Which mode uses the LOM port to carry management traffic only?

A.    Dual-wire management
B.    Direct connect
C.    Single connect
D.    In-band

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 392
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NEW QUESTION 194
A company has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server 2017 infrastructure. The storage area network (SAN) that supports the SQL infrastructure has reached maximum capacity. You need to recommend a solution to reduce on-premises storage use without changing the application. What should you do?

A.    Configure an Express Route connection to Microsoft Azure.
B.    Configure a Microsoft Azure Key Vault.
C.    Configure geo-replication on the SAN.
D.    Configure SQL Server Stretch Database in Microsoft Azure.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Stretch warm and cold transactional data dynamically from SQL Server to Microsoft Azure with SQL Server Stretch Database. Unlike typical cold data storage, your data is always online and available to query. Benefit from the low cost of Azure rather than scaling expensive, on-premises storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/stretch-database/stretch-database?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 195
A company runs Microsoft SQL Server 2017 in an on-premises environment. The databases are memory-optimized. An integrity check of a database has failed. You need to ensure that the data is healthy and passes an integrity check. What should you do?

A.    Run the CHECKTABLE Transact-SQL statement.
B.    Clear the buffer of the database.
C.    Restore from a verified backup.
D.    Run the CLEANTABLE Transact-SQL statement.

Answer: C
Explanation:
To verify the integrity of the on-disk checkpoint files, perform a backup of the MEMORY_OPTIMIZED_DATA filegroup.
Incorrect:
Not A: DBCC CHECKTABLE will fail for memory-optimized tables.
Not D: DBCC CLEANTABLE reclaims space after a variable-length column is dropped.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/in-memory-oltp/transact-sql-constructs-not-supported-by-in-memory-oltp?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 196
You have an on-premises SQL Server database named DB1 that contains a table named TB1. TB1 is stretched to Microsoft Azure. A catastrophic hardware failure occurs on the on-premises SQL server. You deploy a new on-premises server and restore all databases to the new server. You need to resume Stretch Database operations to Azure. Which statements should you execute?

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197
You are developing customized Microsoft Azure Resource Group templates to automate the process of deploying Microsoft SQL Server in Azure to enforce consistency during future deployments. You need to deploy the customized templates to the Azure environment and to external endpoints. Which resource value should you populate?

A.    properties
B.    name
C.    resources
D.    dbType
E.    apiVersion

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 198
You have just completed a new Microsoft SQL Server installation. You need to configure a new SQL Server Agent alert to send an email to the DBA team for severity 20 errors. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose three.)

A.    Set up SQL Mail.
B.    Define an operator.
C.    Configure a credential object.
D.    Define the alert settings.
E.    Configure a proxy.
F.    Set up an External Events collector.
G.    Set up Database Mail.

Answer: BDG

NEW QUESTION 199
Drag and Drop
You plan to enable Stretch Database for a table named Table1. You need to configure Table1 to move the data to Microsoft Azure. The data must be moved at a later time. How should you complete the statement? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
When you enable Stretch for a table by specifying ON, you also have to specify MIGRATION_STATE = OUTBOUND to begin migrating data immediately, or MIGRATION_STATE = PAUSED to postpone data migration.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-table-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017&viewFallbackFrom=sql-server-

NEW QUESTION 200
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL Database server named server1-contoso.database.windows.net in a resource group named RG1. You need to create an elastic pool. How should you complete the script? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: New-AzureRmSqlServer. Create an Azure SQL Database logical server using the New-AzureRmSqlServer command. A logical server contains a group of databases managed as a group.
Box 2: New-AzureRmSqlElasticPool. The New-AzureRmSqlElasticPool cmdlet creates an elastic database pool for an Azure SQL Database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-get-started-powershell
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-get-started-powershell
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.sql/new-azurermsqlelasticpool?view=azurermps-6.8.0

NEW QUESTION 201
Drag and Drop
Your company has many Microsoft SQL Server instances hosted in a data center. You also manage five Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances that are hosted on a single server in Azure. You need to minimize costs associated with Azure resources while maintaining the current performance levels of each Azure SQL Database instance. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database server and share a set number of resources at a set price.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

NEW QUESTION 202
Drag and Drop
Your company has several Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances used within an elastic pool. You need to obtain a list of databases in the pool. How should you complete the commands? (To answer, drag the appropriate segments to the correct targets. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 203
Hotspot
A company uses several Microsoft Azure elastic pools with Azure SQL Database instances. You have two pools named Pool1 and Pool2. Pool2 is near maximum capacity and cannot accommodate the database move. You need to move the database from Pool1 to Pool2. Which PowerShell cmdlets should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 204
Hotspot
A company has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment with a SQL Server named SQL01. You need to create a local sysadmin account on SQL01 NAMED Admin1. How should you complete the Transact-SQL statements? (To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL statements in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 205
Drag and Drop
You have a Microsoft SQL Server instance which hosts all of your corporate databases. A database named Sales stores information about customers and their contact information. You use the following processes for backing up the database:
– All databases are configured for full recovery model.
– Full backups are performed every morning at 2:00 AM.
– Log backups are performed every hour starting at 9:00 AM.
At 9:35 AM, a member of the sales team mistakenly updates all customer records. You need to recover the database to a stable state and recover as much data as possible without recovering the changes that the sales team member made. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 206
……

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NEW QUESTION 333
You have a data warehouse named DW1 that contains 20 years of data. DW1 contains a very large fact table. New data is loaded to the fact table monthly. Many reports query DW1 for the past year of data. Users frequently report that the reports are slow. You need to modify the fact table to minimize the amount of time it takes to run the reports. The solution must ensure that other reports can continue to be generated from DW1. What should you do?

A.    Move the historical data to SAS disks and move the data from the past year to SSD disks.
Run the ALTER TABLE statement.
B.    Move all the data to SSD disks. Load and archive the data by using partition switching.
C.    Move all the data to SAS disks. Load and archive the data by using partition switching.
D.    Move the historical data to SAS disks and move the data for the past year to SSD disks.
Create a distributed partitioned view.

Answer: A
Explanation:
We use ALTER TABLE to partition the table.
Incorrect:
Not D: A Distributed Partitioned View contains participating tables from multiple SQL Server instances, which can be used to distribute the data processing load across multiple servers. Another advantage for the SQL Server Partitioned Views is that the underlying tables can participate in more than one Partitioned View, which could be helpful in some implementations.

NEW QUESTION 334
You have a database named DB1. You need to track auditing data for four tables in DB1 by using change data capture. Which stored procedure should you execute first?

A.    catalog.deploy_project
B.    catalog.restore_project
C.    catalog.stop_operation
D.    sys.sp_cdc_add_job
E.    sys.sp_cdc_change_job
F.    sys.sp_cdc_disable_db

Answer: D
Explanation:
Because the cleanup and capture jobs are created by default, the sys.sp_cdc_add_job stored procedure is necessary only when a job has been explicitly dropped and must be recreated.
Note: sys.sp_cdc_add_job creates a change data capture cleanup or capture job in the current database.
A cleanup job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture. A capture job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture and no transactional publications exist for the database. When a transactional publication exists, the transactional log reader is used to drive the capture mechanism, and a separate capture job is neither required nor allowed.
Note: sys.sp_cdc_change_job.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/track-changes/track-data-changes-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 335
You have a data warehouse named DW1. All data files are located on drive E. You expect queries that pivot hundreds of millions of rows for each report. You need to modify the data files to minimize latency. What should you do?

A.    Add more data files to DW1 on drive E.
B.    Add more data files to tempdb on drive E.
C.    Remove data files from tempdb.
D.    Remove data files from DW1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The number of files depends on the number of (logical) processors on the machine. As a general rule, if the number of logical processors is less than or equal to eight, use the same number of data files as logical processors. If the number of logical processors is greater than eight, use eight data files and then if contention continues, increase the number of data files by multiples of 4 until the contention is reduced to acceptable levels or make changes to the workload/code.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/databases/tempdb-database

NEW QUESTION 336
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) model. The model was developed to provide consistent and validated snapshots of master data to the ETL processes by using subscription views. A new model version has been created. You need to ensure that the ETL processes retrieve the latest snapshot of master data. What should you do?

A.    Add a version flag to the new version, and create new subscription views that use this version flag.
B.    Create new subscription views for the new version.
C.    Update the subscription views to use the new version.
D.    Update the subscription views to use the last committed version.

Answer: A
Explanation:
When a version is ready for users or for a subscribing system, you can set a flag to identify the version. You can move this flag from version to version as needed. Flags help users and subscribing systems identify which version of a model to use.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/versions-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 337
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) solution. The model contains an entity named Product. The Product entity has three user-defined attributes named Category, Subcategory, and Price, respectively. You need to ensure that combinations of values stored in the Category and Subcategory attributes are unique. What should you do?

A.    Create an attribute group that consists of the Category and Subcategory attributes.
Publish a business rule for the attribute group.
B.    Publish a business rule that will be used by the Product entity.
C.    Create a derived hierarchy based on the Category and Subcategory attributes.
Use the Category attribute as the top level for the hierarchy.
D.    Set the value of the Attribute Type property for the Category and Subcategory attributes to Domain-based.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In Master Data Services, business rule actions are the consequence of business rule condition evaluations. If a condition is true, the action is initiated. The Validation action “must be unique”: The selected attribute must be unique independently or in combination with defined attributes.
Incorrect:
Not A: In Master Data Services, attribute groups help organize attributes in an entity. When an entity has lots of attributes, attribute groups improve the way an entity is displayed in the Master Data Manager web application.
Not C: A Master Data Services derived hierarchy is derived from the domain-based attribute relationships that already exist between entities in a model.
Not D: In Master Data Services, a domain-based attribute is an attribute with values that are populated by members from another entity. You can think of a domain-based attribute as a constrained list; domain- based attributes prevent users from entering attribute values that are not valid. To select an attribute value, the user must pick from a list.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/business-rule-actions-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 338
You create a Master Data Services (MDS) model that manages the master data for a Product dimension. The Product dimension has the following properties:
– All the members of the Product dimension have a product type, a product subtype, and a unique product name.
– Each product has a single product type and a single product subtype.
– The product type has a one-to-many relationship to the product subtype.
You need to ensure that the relationship between the product name, the product type, and the product subtype is maintained when products are added to or updates in the database. What should you add to the model?

A.    a subscription view
B.    a derived hierarchy
C.    a recursive hierarchy
D.    an explicit hierarchy

Answer: B
Explanation:
A Master Data Services derived hierarchy is derived from the domain-based attribute relationships that already exist between entities in a model. You can create a derived hierarchy to highlight any of the existing domain-based attribute relationships in the model.
Incorrect:
Not C: In Master Data Services, a recursive hierarchy is a derived hierarchy that includes a recursive relationship. A recursive relationship exists when an entity has a domain-based attribute based on the entity itself.
Not D: In Master Data Services, an explicit hierarchy organizes members from a single entity in any way you specify. The structure can be ragged and unlike derived hierarchies, explicit hierarchies are not based on domain-based attribute relationships.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/derived-hierarchies-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 339
You are loading data from an OLTP database to a data warehouse. The database contains a table named Sales. Sales contains details of records that have a type of refund and records that have a type of sales. The data warehouse design contains a table for sales data and a table for refund data. Which component should you use to load the data to the warehouse?

A.    the Slowly Changing Dimension transformation
B.    the Conditional Split transformation
C.    the Merge transformation
D.    the Data Conversion transformation
E.    an Execute SQL task
F.    the Aggregate transformation
G.    the Lookup transformation

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Conditional Split transformation can route data rows to different outputs depending on the content of the data. The implementation of the Conditional Split transformation is similar to a CASE decision structure in a programming language. The transformation evaluates expressions, and based on the results, directs the data row to the specified output. This transformation also provides a default output, so that if a row matches no expression it is directed to the default output.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/conditional-split-transformation

NEW QUESTION 340
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. You need to cleanse a data flow source by removing duplicate records based on approximate matches. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Fuzzy Grouping transformation performs data cleaning tasks by identifying rows of data that are likely to be duplicates and selecting a canonical row of data to use in standardizing the data.
Incorrect:
Not C: UNION ALL. Incorporates all rows into the results. This includes duplicates. If not specified, duplicate rows are removed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/fuzzy-grouping-transformation

NEW QUESTION 341
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package design consists of two differently structured sources in a single data flow. The Sales source retrieves sales transactions from a SQL Server database, and the Product source retrieves product details from an XML file. You need to combine the two data flow sources into a single output dataset. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: G
Explanation:
The Merge Join transformation provides an output that is generated by joining two sorted datasets using a FULL, LEFT, or INNER join. For example, you can use a LEFT join to join a table that includes product information with a table that lists the country/region in which a product was manufactured. The result is a table that lists all products and their country/region of origin.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/transformations/merge-join-transformation

NEW QUESTION 342
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. You need to ensure that the package records the current Log Sequence Number (LSN) in the source database before the package begins reading source tables. Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?

A.    CDC Control task
B.    CDC Splitter
C.    Union All
D.    XML task
E.    Fuzzy Grouping
F.    Merge
G.    Merge Join

Answer: A
Explanation:
The CDC Control task is used to control the life cycle of change data capture (CDC) packages. It handles CDC package synchronization with the initial load package, the management of Log Sequence Number (LSN) ranges that are processed in a run of a CDC package.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/cdc-control-task

NEW QUESTION 343
Hotspot
You are a data warehouse developer. You need to create a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) catalog on a production SQL Server instance. Which features are needed? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Yes. “Enable CLR Integration” must be selected because the catalog uses CLR stored procedures.
Box 2: Yes. Once you have selected the “Enable CLR Integration” option, another checkbox will be enabled named “Enable automatic execution of Integration Services stored procedure at SQL Server startup”. Click on this check box to enable the catalog startup stored procedure to run each time the SSIS server instance is restarted.
https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4097/understanding-the-sql-server-integration-services-catalog-and-creating-the-ssisdb-catalog/

NEW QUESTION 344
Drag and Drop
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to incrementally load new and changed records from a data source. The SSIS package must load new records into Table1 and updated records into Table1_Updates. After loading records, the package must call a Transact-SQL statement to process updated rows according to existing business logic. You need to complete the design of the SSIS package. Which tasks should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate SSIS objects to the correct targets. Each SSIS object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 3: The Data Flow task encapsulates the data flow engine that moves data between sources and destinations, and lets the user transform, clean, and modify data as it is moved. Addition of a Data Flow task to a package control flow makes it possible for the package to extract, transform, and load data.
Step 4: The CDC source reads a range of change data from SQL Server 2017 change tables and delivers the changes downstream to other SSIS component.
Step 5: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows for Insert, Update and Delete operations.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/cdc-control-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/data-flow-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/cdc-splitter?view=sql-server-2017

NEW QUESTION 345
A database has tables named Table1, Table2, and Table3:
– Table1 has a foreign key relationship with Table2.
– Table2 has a foreign key relationship with Table3.
– Table1 does not have a direct relationship with Table3.
You need to recommend an appropriate dimension usage relationship. What should you recommend?

A.    many-to-one relationship
B.    referenced relationship
C.    regular dimension relationship
D.    fact relationship

Answer: B
Explanation:
A reference dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined indirectly to the fact table through a key in another dimension table.
Incorrect:
Not C: A regular dimension relationship between a cube dimension and a measure group exists when the key column for the dimension is joined directly to the fact table.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensional-models-olap-logical-cube-objects/dimension-relationships

NEW QUESTION 346
You manage Master Data Services (MDS). You plan to create entities and attributes and load them with the data. You also plan to match data before loading it into Data Quality Services (DQS). You need to recommend a solution to perform the actions. What should you recommend?

A.    MDS Add-in for Microsoft Excel
B.    MDS Configuration Manager
C.    Data Quality Matching
D.    MDS Repository

Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Master Data Services Add-in for Excel, matching functionality is provided by Data Quality Services (DQS). This functionality must be enabled to be used:
1. To enable Data Quality Services integration.
2. Open Master Data Services Configuration Manager.
3. In the left pane, click Web Configuration.
4. On the Web Configuration page, select the website and web application.
5. In the Enable DQS Integration section, click Enable integration with Data Quality Services.
6. On the confirmation dialog box, click OK.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/master-data-services/install-windows/enable-data-quality-services-integration-with-master-data-services

NEW QUESTION 347
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NEW QUESTION 436
When you configure a Cisco WLC, which task must you perform to enable central web authentication?

A.    Set the Layer 2 ACL option to None.
B.    Set the NAC State option to SNMP NAC.
C.    Set the NAC State option to RADIUS NAC.
D.    Set the NAC State option to None.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 437
Which guest service requires session services to be enabled on a cisco ISE node?

A.    administration service
B.    monitoring service
C.    posture service
D.    profiling service

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 438
What is required to implement Monitor Mode in a wireless network?

A.    Open authentication must be configured via Cisco WLC CLI.
B.    Wireless Monitor Mode policy should be enabled within Cisco ISE.
C.    Monitor mode in a wireless network is not possible.
D.    Cisco WLC should have this feature enabled inside the security properties for the WLAN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 439
You are managing a network environment in which clients that are successfully obtain a new VLAN IP address. Which timer can you use to increase the allowable amount of time for the client to undergo CoA?

A.    keepalive timer
B.    remediation timer
C.    network transaction delay timer
D.    minimum acceptable hold timer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 440
Which type of a sensor requires an embedded data collector in the switch to support profiling?

A.    DHCP sensor
B.    CDP sensor
C.    IOS sensor
D.    LLDP sensor

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 441
Which probe carries the IP address of the endpoint in the Framed-IP-Address attribute of the payload?

A.    DNS probe
B.    LLDP probe
C.    RADIUS probe
D.    DHCP probe

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 442
On which type of node does the Cisco ISE sponsor portal reside?

A.    Monitoring node
B.    Inline Policy node
C.    Policy Services node
D.    Administration node

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 443
Which task must you perform on a node before it can host Cisco ISE end-user web portals?

A.    Configure at least one SSID for guest access.
B.    Enable Captive Portal Bypass.
C.    Enable portal-policy services.
D.    Enable DHCP profiling.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 444
Which client interface or interfaces are provisioned when the Cisco ISE performs supplicant provisioning?

A.    wireless and wired interface
B.    wireless interface
C.    active interfaces
D.    wired interface

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 445
When a wireless client enters the noncompliant posture status, how can it restart the posture session?

A.    It must discount from the SSID for any interval and then reconnect.
B.    The wireless interface on the client must be disable and re-enabled.
C.    It must associate to a different SSID.
D.    It must disconnect from the SSID, wait for the idle timeout period to expire, and then reconnect.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 446
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 447
Which three options can be pushed from a cisco ISE server as part of a successful 802.1x authentication? (Choose three.)

A.    reauthentication
B.    authentication
C.    authentication
D.    VLAN
E.    posture status
F.    DACL

Answer: ADF

NEW QUESTION 448
Which two services does TACACS+ support? (Choose two.)

A.    SLIP
B.    ARAP
C.    S/MINE
D.    Native AD
E.    x-509

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 449
Which two troubleshooting tools are available within the diagnostics tools menu in cisco ISE? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP Dump
B.    Expert Troubleshooter
C.    Execute Network Device
D.    AAA Authentication Trouble
E.    Policy Validator

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 450
Which action must be taken by a Noncompliant wireless client to get out of quarantine status?

A.    Disconnect from the WLAN controller and let the idle.
B.    Adjust policy in BYOD portal.
C.    Perform a periodic reassessment.
D.    Download Posture Update.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 451
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NEW QUESTION 289
Which feature must be configured before you can implement a dynamic ARP inspection to validate an ARP packet?

A.    unicast RPF
B.    DHCP snooping
C.    IP Source Guard
D.    MACsec encryption

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 290
Which two statements about the VRRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    VRRP allows the traffic load to be shared through the use of multiple VRRP groups.
B.    When the VRRP is configured to track a Layer 2 interface, the VRRP priority instantly reflects the state of the Layer 2 interface.
C.    The BFD for the VRRP can be configured only between two Cisco Nexus switches.
D.    vPC can forward traffic through both VRRP devices.
E.    The VRRP can be configured on the management interface.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 291
Which description of a MAC ACL is true?

A.    It filters based on the DSCP value.
B.    It is applied to egress traffic only.
C.    It is applied when DHCP snooping is enabled.
D.    It is applied to ingress traffic only.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 292
You have a Fibre Channel switch with one of its ports connected to a host. The host remains in the initializing state. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.    The FLOGI packet was dropped somewhere on the data path.
B.    The ELP process failed after the FLOGI occurred.
C.    The host is not powered on.
D.    The vFC interface on the host is configured to use an incorrect mode.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 293
Which statement accurately describes EPLD upgrades?

A.    A system reboot is required after an EPLD upgrade.
B.    They should be performed only if advised by the Cisco TAC.
C.    EPLD upgrades apply only to supervisor modules.
D.    They are disruptive to the module to which they are applied.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 294
Which statement about a configuration that uses OSPFv3 multiarea adjacency is true?

A.    A switch can support more than one address family by using point-to-multipoint.
B.    switch can operate in more than one area by using subinterfaces.
C.    Multiple VRFs can operate in different areas.
D.    The link on a primary interface can be in more than one area.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 295
Which ACL is applied first when a packet enters a Cisco Nexus Series Switch?

A.    port ACL
B.    ingress router ACL
C.    SGACL
D.    ingress VACL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 296
When configuring PIM on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch, which mode requires you to configure an RP?

A.    SSM
B.    DM
C.    SDM
D.    BIDIR

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 297
Which database contains information about all of the devices that are currently registered in the fabric?

A.    RSCN
B.    FLOGI
C.    FDMI
D.    FCNS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 298
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the optional OSPF parameters from the left onto the correct functions on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 299
You are implementing a Cisco Fabric Path network. Which statement accurately describes the VN-Segment feature?

A.    The VN-Segment feature must be enabled on all leaf switches.
B.    Up to 16,000 VN segments are supported on a leaf switch.
C.    The VN-Segment feature must be enabled on all switches.
D.    The VN-Segment tag is added to VN-Segment edge ports.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 300
In Any Source Multicast groups which multicast enabled device supports shared trees?

A.    RP
B.    any router in the tree except for the RP
C.    first-hop router
D.    last-hop router

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 301
You have multiple OTV edge devices in each OTV site. Which configuration prevents an end-to-end STP loop?

A.    selective unicast flooding
B.    AED election
C.    FHRP filtering
D.    ARP local caching

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 302
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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to prevent standard users from changing the wireless network settings on Computer1. The solution must allow administrators to modify the wireless network settings. What should you use?

A.    Windows Configuration Designer.
B.    MSConfig.
C.    Local Group Policy Editor.
D.    An MMC console that has the Group Policy Object Editor snap-in.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company has a wireless access point that uses WPA2-Enterprise. You need to configure a computer to connect to the wireless access point. What should you do first?

A.    Create a provisioning package in Windows Configuration Designer.
B.    Request a passphrase.
C.    Request and install a certificate.
D.    Create a Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) package.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/17137/windows-setting-up-wireless-network

NEW QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a user named Admin1. All computers run Windows 10. You enable Windows PowerShell remoting on the computers. You need to ensure that Admin1 can establish remote PowerShell connections to the computers. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add Admin1?

A.    Access Control Assistance Operators
B.    Power Users
C.    Remote Desktop Users
D.    Remote Management Users

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://4sysops.com/wiki/enable-powershell-remoting/

NEW QUESTION 4
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup. The computers have a low-bandwidth metered Internet connection. You need to reduce the amount of Internet bandwidth consumed to download updates. What should you configure?

A.    BranchCache in hosted mode
B.    BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C.    Delivery Optimization
D.    Background intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4468254/windows-update-delivery-optimization-faq

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform. In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops. Some laptops frequently generate stop errors. You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you use?

A.    Reliability Monitor
B.    Task Manager
C.    System Configuration
D.    Performance Monitor

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a folder. The folder contains sensitive data. You need to log which user reads the contents of the folder and modifies and deletes files in the folder.
Solution: From the properties of the folder, you configure the Auditing settings and from Audit Policy in the local Group Policy, you configure Audit object access.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.netwrix.com/how_to_detect_who_changed_file_or_folder_owner.html

NEW QUESTION 7
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You test Windows updates on Computer1 before you make the updates available to other users at your company. You install a quality update that conflicts with a customer device driver. You need to remove the update from Computer1.
Solution: From System Restore, you revert the system state to a restore point that was created before the update was installed.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/934307/description-of-the-windows-update-standalone-installer-in-windows

NEW QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 1,000 computers that run Windows 10. You discover that when users are on their lock screen, they see a different background image every day, along with tips for using different features in Windows 10. You need to disable the tips and the daily background image for all the Windows 10 computers. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?

A.    Turn off the Windows Welcome Experience.
B.    Turn off Windows Spotlight on Settings.
C.    Do not suggest third-party content in Windows spotlight.
D.    Turn off all Windows spotlight features.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/configuration/windows-spotlight

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 has a local user named User1 who has a customized profile. On Computer1, you perform a clean installation of Windows 10 without formatting the drives. You need to migrate the settings of User1 from Windows7 to Windows 10. Which two actions should you perform? (To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/usmt/usmt-how-it-works

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates. You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements: The configuration must be managed from a central location. Internet traffic must be minimized. Costs must be minimized. How should you configure Windows Update? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-optimize-windows-10-updates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-delivery-optimization

NEW QUESTION 11
You have several computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup and have BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) enabled. You join the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker recovery key for the computers from Azure AD. What should you do first?

A.    Disable BitLocker.
B.    Add a BitLocker key protector.
C.    Suspend BitLocker.
D.    Disable the TMP chip.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/prepare-your-organization-for-bitlocker-planning-and-policies#bitlocker-key-protectors

NEW QUESTION 12
……

Case Study 1 – Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam, Inc. is a distribution company that has 500 employees and 100 contractors. Its network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. The forest is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). All the employees are assigned Microsoft 365 E3 licenses. The domain contains a user account for an employee named User10.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to ensure that User10 can activate Computer10. What should you do?

A.    Request that a Windows 10 Enterprise license be assigned to User10, and then activate Computer10.
B.    From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add a Volume License Key to a task sequence, and then redeploy Computer10.
C.    From System Properties on Computer10, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer10.
D.    Request that User10 perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer10, and then activate Computer10.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-requirements-licensing

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution to configure the employee VPN connections. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Remote Access Management Console
B.    Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
C.    Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK)
D.    Microsoft Intune

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/vpn/always-on-vpn/deploy/vpn-deploy-client-vpn-connections#bkmk_ProfileXML

NEW QUESTION 53
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. Contoso has IT, human resources (HR), and finance departments. Contoso recently opened a new branch office in San Diego. All the users in the San Diego office work from home.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to meet the technical requirements for EFS on ComputerA. What should you do?

A.    Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
B.    Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local computer certificate store.
C.    Run cipher.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.
D.    Run certutil.exe, and then add a certificate to the local Group Policy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-and-verify-an-efs-dra-certificate

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to meet the technical requirement for the IT department users. What should you do first?

A.    Issue computer certificates.
B.    Distribute USB keys to the IT department users.
C.    Enable screen saver and configure a timeout.
D.    Turn on Bluetooth.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/4028111/windows-lock-your-windows-10-pc-automatically-when-you-step-away-from

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to meet the technical requirement for User6. What should you do?

A.    Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group in the domain.
B.    Remove User6 from Group2 in the domain.
C.    Add User6 to the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2.
D.    And User6 to the Administrators group on Computer2.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 59
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company uses Microsoft Intune to manage all devices. The company uses conditional access to restrict access to Microsoft 365 services for devices that do not comply with the company’s security policies. You need to identify which devices will be prevented from accessing Microsoft 365 services. What should you use?

A.    The Device Health solution in Windows Analytics.
B.    Windows Defender Security Center.
C.    The Device compliance blade in the Intune admin center.
D.    The Conditional access blade in the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You have 10 computers that run Windows 7 and have the following configurations:
– A single MBR disk
– A disabled TPM chip
– Disabled hardware virtualization
– UEFI firmware running in BIOS mode
– Enabled Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
You plan to upgrade the computers to Windows 10. You need to ensure that the computers can use Secure Boot. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Convert the MBR disk to a GPT disk
B.    Enable the TPM chip
C.    Disable DEP
D.    Enable hardware virtualization
E.    Convert the firmware from BIOS to UEFI

Answer: AE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/boot-to-uefi-mode-or-legacy-bios-mode

NEW QUESTION 3
You have 200 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (AD) and enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You need to enable self-service password reset on the sign-in screen. Which settings should you configure from the Microsoft Intune blade?

A.    Device configuration
B.    Device compliance
C.    Device enrollment
D.    Conditional access

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-sspr-windows

NEW QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create a conditional access policy for Microsoft Exchange Online. You need to configure the policy to prevent access to Exchange Online unless is connecting from a device that is hybrid Azure AD-joined. Which settings should you configure?

A.    Locations
B.    Device platforms
C.    Sign-in risk
D.    Device state

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions#device-state

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company uses Microsoft Intune to manage devices. You need to ensure that only Android devices that use Android work profiles can enroll in Intune. Which two configurations should you perform in the device enrollment restrictions? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Select platforms, set Android work profile to Allow.
B.    From Configure platforms, set Android Personally Owned to Block.
C.    From Configure platforms, set Android Personally Owned to Allow.
D.    From Select platforms, set Android to Block.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/InTune/enrollment-restrictions-set

NEW QUESTION 6
Your company uses Windows AutoPilot to configure the computer settings of computers issued to users. A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. User1 leaves the company. You plan to transfer the computer to a user named User2. You need to ensure that when User2 first starts the computer, User2 is prompted to select the language setting and to agree to the license agreement.
Solution: You perform a remote Windows AutoPilot Reset.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset-remote

NEW QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that feature and quality updates install automatically during a maintenance window.
Solution: From the Maintenance Scheduler settings, you configure Automatic Maintenance Random Delay.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/automatically-deploy-software-updates

NEW QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. All the users in the finance department own personal devices that run iOS or Android. All the devices are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. The finance department adds new users each month. The company develops a mobile application named App1 for the finance department users. You need to ensure that only the finance department users can download App1. What should you do first?

A.    Add App1 to Intune.
B.    Add App1 to a Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) deployment share.
C.    Add App1 to Microsoft Store for Business.
D.    Add App1 to the vendor stores for iOS and Android applications.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/apps-add

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company uses Microsoft Intune to manage iOS, Android, and Windows 10 devices. The company plans to purchase 1,000 iOS devices. Each device will be assigned to a specific user. You need to ensure that the new iOS devices are enrolled automatically in Intune when the assigned user signs in for the first time. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-enrollment-program-enroll-ios

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
Your company has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Pro. The company develops a proprietary Universal Windows Platform (UWP) app named App1. App1 is signed with a certificate from a trusted certification authority (CA). You need to sideload App1 to Computer1. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.windowscentral.com/how-enable-windows-10-sideload-apps-outside-store
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/application-management/sideload-apps-in-windows-10

NEW QUESTION 11
You have a shared computer that runs Windows 10. The computer is infected with a virus. You discover that a malicious TTF font was used to compromise the computer. You need to prevent this type of threat from affecting the computer in the future. What should you use?

A.    Windows Defender Exploit Guard
B.    Windows Defender Application Guard
C.    Windows Defender Credential Guard
D.    Windows Defender System Guard
E.    Windows Defender SmartScreen

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-exploit-guard/windows-defender-exploit-guard

NEW QUESTION 12
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
The Litware, Inc. has a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager deployment. During discovery, the company discovers a process where users are emailing bank account information of its customers to internal and external recipients. Its network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2012 R2. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Litware has the computers shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure AD-joined computers?

A.    Windows Hello for Business from the Microsoft Intune blade in the Azure portal.
B.    The Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C.    The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D.    A password policy from the Microsoft Office 365 portal.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-in-organization

NEW QUESTION 52
What should you use to meet the technical requirements for Azure DevOps?

A.    An app protection policy
B.    Windows Information Protection (WIP)
C.    Conditional access
D.    A device configuration profile

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/accounts/manage-conditional-access?view=azure-devops

NEW QUESTION 53
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd, is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. Contoso has the users and computers shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to meet the technical requirements for the iOS devices. Which object should you create in Intune?

A.    A compliance policy
B.    An app protection policy
C.    A Deployment profile
D.    A device profile

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-configure
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-ios

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to meet the technical requirements for the IT department. What should you do first?

A.    From the Azure Active Directory blade in the Azure portal, enable Seamless single sign-on.
B.    From the Configuration Manager console, add an Intune subscription.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory blade in the Azure portal, configure the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
D.    From the Microsoft Intune blade in the Azure portal, configure the Windows enrollment settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/tutorial-co-manage-clients

NEW QUESTION 58
……

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