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NEW QUESTION 137
Which two objects must have multicast routing configured when implementing Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)

A.    Layer 3 In
B.    Bridge Domain
C.    SVI
D.    Leaf
E.    Layer 3 Out

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 138
You are integrating ten L4-7 devices that share the same configuration arameters and the same service policy mode in your ACI fabric network. Which APIC configuration feature will reduce the configuration overhead fort he L4-7 devices?

A.    Function Profile
B.    Device Package
C.    Graph Connector
D.    Service Graph

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 139
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of configuration?

A.    Add AS number 7 after the last AS number in the AS-Path list for all incoming routes to the ACI fabric network.
B.    Add AS number 7 after the last AS number in the AS-Path list for all the outgoing routes from the ACI fabric network.
C.    Add AS number seven times for all the incoming routes to the ACI fabric network.
D.    Add AS number seven times for all the outgoing routes from the ACI fabric network.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. You create a static VLAN pool to be used for VMM integration. On which component do you configure the VLANs in the pool?

A.    Cisco AVS
B.    DVS
C.    Fabric interconnect
D.    VMware vSwitch

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 141
Refer to the exhibit. Which component must you create to deploy the application profile?

A.    Global policy
B.    Private network
C.    Domain
D.    EPG

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 142
Which option does a service graph template contain?

A.    Group of logical devices
B.    Collection of user steps
C.    Group of network configurations
D.    Collection of meta-devices

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 143
Which statement describes an endpoint retention policy behaviour of learned endpoints when subnets of a bridge domain are configured to be enforced?

A.    It removes learned endpoints from the endpoint retention cache when a remote device times out.
B.    It retains the IP Addresses of the learned endpoint contained outside the bridge subnets.
C.    It retains policy information about remote endpoints by using the leaf switches.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the configuration of the Cisco2?

A.    Cisco2 will be a trunk port.
B.    The description is Parent_Port.
C.    The MTU value is 9000.
D.    The max-ports value is 16.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 145
You are attempting to install a switch remotely. You have a POAP script that fails to find a specified boot image on the switch. Which action do you take?

A.    Abort the provisioning process.
B.    Download a copy of the image used by the script.
C.    Reboot the switch.
D.    Adjust the script to use any image on the switch.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration of the Cisco Nexus 1000V series switch is true?

A.    Packet VLAN is a private VLAN.
B.    VSM connects to the VMware vCenter server.
C.    Mgmt0 is a Layer 2 interface.
D.    SVS mode is set to L3.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 147
Which two objects can be placed in VRF?

A.    Console interface
B.    Layer 3 subinterfaces
C.    Layer 2 subinterfaces
D.    VDC associated to the VRF
E.    Routing protocol instance

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 148
Which offer is selected when a Cisco Nexus Series switch multiple DHCP offers during the POAP DHCP discover phase?

A.    The offer has the highest TFTP server IP address is selected.
B.    The first offer is selected.
C.    An offer is selected randomly.
D.    The offer has the lowest TFTP server IP address is selected.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 149
Which description of the Cisco AVS is true?

A.    The AVS supports individual interface policies.
B.    The AVS supports PC, VPC, MAC pinning and FEX interface policies.
C.    The AVS implements the device package for control plane communication.
D.    VLAN or VXLAN encapsulation can be used in No Local Switching mode.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 150
You are implementing an ACI network with switches that are running the Multiple Spanning Tree Ptotocol. Which two actions are required fort his configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    Create MST EPG fort he native VLAN to carry the BPDU.
B.    Map MST instances to interface profiles.
C.    Create MST Private network for the native VLAN to carry the BPDU.
D.    Map MST instances to VLANs.
E.    Create MST bridge domain for the native VLAN to carry the BBDU.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 151
You are implementing multicast routing between bridge domains for a client who is running ACI version 3.0 with Nexus ACI first-generation switches. What s required for multicast to operate?

A.    PIM Any Source Multicast protocol.
B.    Bootstrap router for RP to group mapping.
C.    PIM Source Specific Multicast protocol.
D.    An external router to perform multicast routing between the bridge domains.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 152
……

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NEW QUESTION 261
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program end campaign management?

A.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Training Center

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 262
In a Resident and Scalable Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?

A.    CMS Edge
B.    CMS Core
C.    UCM Server
D.    TelePresence Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 263
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?

A.    164 and 323
B.    5060 and 5061
C.    1719 and 1720
D.    80 and 443

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 264
Which is a Call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?

A.    Cisco Content Server
B.    Cisco Meeting Server
C.    Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
D.    Cisco Expressway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 265
Which protocol is used for an immersive telepresence meeting?

A.    H.239
B.    Assent
C.    TIP
D.    H.323

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 266
What is a function of an endpoint?

A.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B.    To act us a traffic cop for network communication.
C.    To schedule calls.
D.    To provide an audio and video interlace for the user.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 267
Which room system can also function as a white board?

A.    Spark Board
B.    MX800
C.    SX20
D.    SX10

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268
How is the Management Connector configured for Cisco Spark hybrid?

A.    From the Web interface of Spark Administration.
B.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Edge.
C.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Core and the Web Interface of Spark Administration.
D.    From the Web interface of the Expressway Core.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 269
Which is included in an endpoint’s registration request message sent to a SIP Server?

A.    E 164 URI
B.    E 164 address
C.    SIP Server IP address
D.    Endpoint IP address

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 270
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    Telepresence Server
B.    Cisco Meeting Server
C.    Spark
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 271
What is the only WebEx product that can used in a CMR Cloud solution?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Event Center

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 272
What do Enterprise Settings on Cisco Spark determine?

A.    API integration.
B.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.
C.    BOT integration.
D.    Where user information comes from.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 273
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?

A.    Calling
B.    Meeting
C.    Room Registration
D.    Messaging

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 274
Which is a protocol used for sharing content?

A.    TIP
B.    Assent
C.    H.239
D.    H.323

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 275
Which Cisco WebEX product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 276
In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form?

A.    Search Rules
B.    Find Rules
C.    Hunt Rules
D.    Conference Rules

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 277
Which Cisco Spark Bot type act as a text-based remote control for external services?

A.    Controllers
B.    SMS to Spark Bot
C.    Notifier
D.    Assistants

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 278
When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Script be saved?

A.    .xml
B.    .json
C.    .js
D.    .mp4

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 279
Which Cisco WebEx products can support over 5,000 attendees?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Event Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 280
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

A.    The ability to register desktop phones.
B.    Global phone books.
C.    SRST redundancy.
D.    The ability to register video endpoints.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 281
……

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NEW QUESTION 211
A user logs into a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series device and issues a show vpc brief command but the user does not see any output. What could cause this issue?

A.    The user needs to enable the vPC feature.
B.    The user does not have admin level privilege.
C.    The vPC peer link is down.
D.    The command is not valid.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 212
Which two descriptions of a virtual interface card are true? (Choose two.)

A.    consolidates SAN and LAN networks into a single network and increases the number of physical connectors
B.    physical network adapter that allows you to create multiple virtual NlCs and HBAs
C.    can have unique adapter polities applied to each vNIC and each vHBA
D.    decreases total cost of ownership by physically separating traffic between multiple vNICs and vHBAs
E.    highly efficient and physically segments LAN and SAN traffic into different networks

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 213
Refer to the exhibit. Which two ports are VE ports in this FCoE topology? (Choose two.)

A.    A
B.    B
C.    C
D.    D
E.    E
F.    F

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. Which benefit of a vHBA template pair is true?

A.    Requires that you configure vHBA pairs independently.
B.    Allows the use of fewer IP addresses in the WWPN pool.
C.    Enables you to group vHBAs that share attributes.
D.    Provides redundancy by linking to another template that uses fabric B.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 215
Which two server properties can be defined within a service profile? (Choose two.)

A.    RAID controller type
B.    CPU speed
C.    Memory capacity
D.    MAC address
E.    NIC count

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 216
Which two cloud types are deployment models used in cloud computing? (Choose two.)

A.    collapsed cloud
B.    hybnd cloud
C.    public cloud
D.    layered cloud
E.    automatic cloud

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 217
Which equipment policy is directly affected by the number of links between a fabric interconnect and an I/O module?

A.    global power allocation policy
B.    rack management connection policy
C.    firmware auto sync server policy
D.    chassis/FEX discovery policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 218
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the workflow is true?

A.    It attempts to associate the service profile to another blade.
B.    It completes in a failed state.
C.    It pauses while waiting for user input.
D.    It deletes the service profile.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 219
Which option accurately describes the utility of a service offering in Cisco UCS Director?

A.    describes the application requirements
B.    selects resources based on the application requirements
C.    describes the capabilities of a hardware component
D.    describes the infrastructure that is required for the deployment of an application

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 220
How does a Cisco APIC discover a new switch in the fabric?

A.    by using a defined APIC policy
B.    by querying an APIC cluster node
C.    by using a cascading discovery process
D.    by using SNMP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 221
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Cisco Unified Fabric feature characteristics on the left to the correct technology on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 222
Which description of a Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM module is true?

A.    It runs over the data plane.
B.    It is responsible for communications with VMware.
C.    It provides a data plane of the 1000v system.
D.    It is responsible for communications with VMware vCenter and the VEM configuration.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 223
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NEW QUESTION 474
Which two actions can an end user take to manage a lost or stolen device in Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)

A.    Reinstate a device that the user previously marked as lost or stolen.
B.    Activate Cisco ISE Endpoint protection Services to quarantine the device.
C.    Request revocation of the digital certificate of the device.
D.    Add the MAC address of the device to a list of blacklisted devices.
E.    Force the device to be locked with a PIN.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 475
What are two default behaviors of the traffic on a zone based firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    The CBAC rules that are configured on router interfaces apply to zone interfaces.
B.    Communication is blocked between interfaces that are members of the same zone.
C.    Traffic within the self zone uses an implicit deny all.
D.    All traffic between zones is implicity blocked.
E.    Communication is allowed between interfaces that are members of the same zone.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 476
What is an advantage of split tunneling?

A.    It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet by using the VPN for security.
B.    It enables the VPN server to filter traffic more efficiently.
C.    It allows users with a VPN connection to a corporate network to access the Internet without sending traffic across the corporate network.
D.    It protects traffic on the private network from users on the public network.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 477
Which IDS/IPS state misidentifies acceptable behavior as an attack?

A.    false positive
B.    false negative
C.    true positive
D.    true negative

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 478
Which type of social engineering attack targets top executives?

A.    baiting
B.    vishing
C.    whaling
D.    spear phishing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 479
Which type of firewall monitors and protects a specific system?

A.    proxy firewall
B.    stateless firewall
C.    application firewall
D.    personal firewall

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
On an ASA, which maps are used to identify traffic?

A.    Policy maps
B.    Class maps
C.    Route maps
D.    Service maps

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 481
Which two roles of the Cisco WSA are true? (Choose two.)

A.    web proxy
B.    URL filter
C.    antispam
D.    IPS
E.    firewall

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 482
Which command do you enter to verify the Phase 1 status of a VPN connection?

A.    debug crypto isakmp
B.    sh crypto session
C.    sh crypto isakmp sa
D.    sh crypto ipsec sa

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 483
Which command enables authentication at the OSPFv2 routing process level?

A.    area 0 authentication message-digest
B.    area 0 authentication ipsec spi 500 md5 1234567890ABCDEF1234567890ABCDEF
C.    ip ospf authentication message-digest
D.    ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 C1sc0!

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 484
What is the maximum number of methods that a single method list can contain?

A.    4
B.    3
C.    2
D.    5

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 485
Which IPS detection method examines network traffic for preconfigured patterns?

A.    signature-based detection
B.    policy-based detection
C.    anomaly-based detection
D.    honey-pot detection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486
……

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NEW QUESTION 401
An engineer must create a SIP trunk profile on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which menu navigation sequence accomplishes this task?

A.    System > Service Parameters > SIP Trunk Security Profile
B.    Device > Device Setting > SIP Trunk Security Profile
C.    System > Security > SIP Trunk Security Profile
D.    Device > Trunk

Answer: C
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NEW QUESTION 402
Which feature enables the hosting of a multipoint conference locally on a Cisco TelePresence endpoint without the use of an external bridge?

A.    multisite
B.    MCU
C.    multipoint
D.    VCS
E.    multiway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 403
A Cisco TelePresence EX90 endpoint is not registering successfully, and the endpoint IP address is not known. What is the proper method to obtain the current IP address of the device?

A.    Reboot the device, and watch the screen for the IP address at system boot.
B.    Use Telnet to connect to the MAC address of the device, and type “STATICA”.
C.    Display the IP on the Cisco TelePresence EX90 screen by using the Cisco TelePresence Remote Control.
D.    Connect a computer to the NIC on the Cisco TelePresence EX90, and enable DHCP.
E.    Use the Cisco TelePresence Touch Control system menu.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 404
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which step is required as part of this process?

A.    Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
B.    Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
C.    Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D.    Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 405
An engineer wants to select a different camera layout to send to different users. Which video surveillance software component allows camera layouts?

A.    Virtual Matrix
B.    Operations Manager
C.    Integrated Services Router
D.    Media Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Video/IPVS/IPVS_DG/IPVSDesignGuide/IPVSchap4.html

NEW QUESTION 406
Which Cisco TelePresence system includes three cameras and a second row of seating for meeting participants?

A.    TelePresence TX9000
B.    Cisco TelePresence System 1300
C.    Cisco TelePresence System 1100
D.    Cisco TelePresence TX9200

Answer: D
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION 407
What are two characteristics of room acoustics regarding Cisco TelePresence Systems that should be avoided? (Choose two.)

A.    low ambient SPL
B.    high reverberation
C.    ambient noise level < 36dBA
D.    ambient noise level > 36dBA
E.    NRC of .75

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 408
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NEW QUESTION 615
Which route source has a lower administrative cost than BGP?

A.    RIP
B.    a connected interface
C.    OSPF
D.    an IBGP route

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 616
An engineer is designing a Cisco Unified Communications deployment for a customer with small sites across the country. Which deployment model keeps the call control at the data center of the primary site?

A.    campus deployments
B.    distributed deployment
C.    multisite deployment model with centralized call processing
D.    cloud hybrid service deployment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 617
A small business owner has 200 staff members that occupy two floors of a building. The owner wants to reduce the network infrastructure costs without losing too much network resiliency and scalability. Which action meets these requirements?

A.    Combine access and core layers into one layer and keeping all other layers.
B.    Combine access and distribution layers into one layer and keep all other layers.
C.    Exclude access and distribution layer switches and connect everything to redundant core switches.
D.    Combine core and distribution layers into one layer and keep all other layers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 618
Which key feature does a modular design approach provide?

A.    performance
B.    manageability
C.    efficiency
D.    fault isolation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 619
An organization must decide which routing protocol to use throughout its network. If routing is performed at the access layer, which factor must the organization consider?

A.    reduced network scalability when introducing numerous switch blocks into the routing table
B.    centralized management of ACLs at the distribution layer
C.    reliability when implementing routing over STP at the access layer
D.    performance differences between core, distribution, and access layer equipment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 620
When designing enterprise networks, which two elements help to achieve IP routing efficiency? (Choose two.)

A.    using two different IGP protocols
B.    supernettmg
C.    static routing
D.    hierarchical addressing
E.    dynamic IP addressing

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 621
Which statement about route summarization is true?

A.    Summarization is supported by every routing protocol.
B.    EIGRP can be configured to automatically summarize VLSM networks.
C.    When it is implemented routing tables are smaller.
D.    ACLs can be applied to automatically summarize routes.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 622
Which two features are benefits of a modular network design? (Choose two.)

A.    higher scalability
B.    intelligent network services
C.    ease of troubleshooting
D.    end-to-end security
E.    improved fault isolation

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 623
Cisco Unified Wireless networks support two campus design models, Centralized or Local Mode and Cisco FlexConnect. Which statement about the Local Mode design model is true?

A.    The wireless LAN controller and access points are co-located.
B.    It is recommended for remote-site deployments.
C.    It is recommended for sites that use less than 50 Aps.
D.    It is recommended for sites with a local WAN distribution layer.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 624
An engineer must design a new data center network and must reduce hardware costs while allowing for the benefits of a hierarchical network model. Which layer is combined with the distribution layer by a single device to accomplish this goal?

A.    campus
B.    access
C.    DMZ
D.    core

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 625
What is a benefit of deploying Cisco IPS devices in inline mode?

A.    faster network convergence
B.    decreased network latency
C.    improved service availability
D.    timely threat detection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 626
Which two characteristics are advantages of the top-down approach to network design? (Choose two.)

A.    Generally is the fastest approach.
B.    The resulting design is optimized for the business requirements of the organization.
C.    The designer can delay testing until the end of the project.
D.    The resulting design can meet both current and future requirements.
E.    Does not require a throuough initial need analysis.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 627
Which two types of files are the most common used in APIs for programmabtlity? (Choose two.)

A.    HTML
B.    PERL
C.    BASH
D.    JSON
E.    XML

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 628
Which advantage of using Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

A.    utilizes all available uplink bandwidth
B.    allows fast convergence after failure of a link or device
C.    allows dual-homed servers operate in active-active mode
D.    prevents network loops

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629
A customer ts questioning the additional infrastructure that is needed to design a three-tiered, hierarchical network. Which feature is a benefit of the distribution layer In a traditional design?

A.    creates access layer resiliency
B.    isolation of faults between the access and core layers
C.    extends the Layer 2 and Layer 3 boundary to the core layer
D.    provides additional security services against unauthorized access

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 630
An engineer must build an enterprise network that can operate with a limited amount of employees. In which two ways can the engineer use the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A.    manage
B.    share
C.    learn
D.    operate
E.    build

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 631
Which type of WAN connection do you use for a low-latency application that is only available across a WAN?

A.    IPsec over the Internet
B.    MPLS VPN
C.    Dial-up
D.    Unencrypted GRE over the Internet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 632
A customer is deploying a centralized communications infrastructure to a small remote construction site that has sateilite-based Internet connectivity if the expected latency is about 500 ms, which description of the user experience is true?

A.    minimal delay and conversation overlap
B.    phones will not complete registration to the centralized cluster
C.    significant delay and conversation overlap
D.    no delay or conversation overlap

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 633
What occurs to traffic when a Cisco APIC is removed from the data path of a Cisco ACI?

A.    The fabric continues to forward the traffic.
B.    The traffic is lost during convergence.
C.    The traffic is queued during convergence.
D.    The fabnc reroutes the traffic to another APIC.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 634
Which network size can provide six /25 subnets while wasting the smallest number of IP addresses?

A.    19
B.    16
C.    22
D.    23

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 635
Which feature enables the VRRP-enabled router to regain the master VRRP status upon recovery from a failure?

A.    tracking
B.    preemption
C.    delay
D.    priority

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 636
Which network element must be summarized in a multiarea OSPF deployment?

A.    IP address
B.    number of routes
C.    communities
D.    link state advertisements

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 637
An engineer is designing a new modular network topoiogy. What is one advantage to using a hierarchical design?

A.    It supports unequal cost paths.
B.    It provides additional fault tolerance.
C.    It enables the network to scale.
D.    It manually controls failover.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 638
Based on best practices which QoS profile should be configured on the WLAN of the WLC for wireless VoIP communications?

A.    Platinum
B.    Bronze
C.    Silver
D.    Gold

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 639
When designing a high availability network, which option can be classified as a fault domain?

A.    single power supply devices in a network design
B.    nonredundant devices in the network design
C.    every tier in the network design
D.    collapsed core in a network design

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 640
While preparing an overview of Internet facing DMZ for a customer, a consultant must identify the functionality to be placed in the DMZ. Which two functionalities are best suited for use in a DMZ? (Choose two.)

A.    enterprise NTP source
B.    DDOS protection
C.    remote access VPN termination
D.    web load balancer
E.    web security appliance

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 641
……

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NEW QUESTION 407
Which VPN technology is preferred to reduce latency and provide encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub?

A.    DMVPN
B.    IPsec
C.    FlexVPN
D.    GETVPN

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 408
Which option is a benefit of ECC as compared to public key cryptography?

A.    improves security by using a large key size
B.    increases speed by using many algorithm methods
C.    increases speed by using a small key
D.    improves security by using many keys

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 409
What are two benefits of SSL VPN versus IPSec VPN when considering a remote-access VPN technology? (Choose two.)

A.    It is accessible via web browser.
B.    It leverages existing network infrastructure.
C.    It minimizes desktop support.
D.    It allows for increased client customization.
E.    It works in environments that are heavily filtered.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 410
What represents a possible network configuration issue in clientless SSL VPN deployments?

A.    The AnyConnect version is not up to date.
B.    The VPN IP pool is exhausted.
C.    The SSL server public certificate is untrusted.
D.    NAT exemption has not been configured.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 411
Which statement about the local and remote methods in an IKEv2 authentication exchange is true?

A.    They must be different.
B.    They must be the same.
C.    They may be the same or different.
D.    There must be one local and two remote methods.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 412
An engineer must set up a site-to-site VPN implementation with an any-to-any topology that provides secure routing across the router backbone. Which VPN technology allows a shared IPSec SA to be used?

A.    GETVPN
B.    FlexVPN
C.    IPsec
D.    DMVPN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 413
An engineer has deployed Cisco IOS crypto-map based VPN and wants to ensure that state information is shared in an HA group. Which high availabilit technology must be used?

A.    GLBP
B.    VRRP
C.    HSRP
D.    HSRP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 414
Which option is a benefit of DTLS as compared to TLS?

A.    increases reliability
B.    increases performance
C.    controls packet loss
D.    controls packet order

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 415
You are designing a remote VPN solution that will use the Cisco AnyConnect client. By default, which type of traffic should you enable on the perimeter firewall to allow users to initiate sessions from the LAN to an external Cisco ASA?

A.    TCP port 443 in TLS mode
B.    UDP port 848 in DTLS mode
C.    UDP ports 500 and 4500
D.    TCP port 8443 in DTLS mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 416
A network engineer testing a clientless VPN connection on a local workstation sees the “Clientless (browser) SSL VPN access is not allowed.” message in the web browser. Which command remediates the problem?

A.    vpn-tunnel-protocol ssl-clientless
B.    deny-message none
C.    svc dtls enable
D.    auto-signon allow uri cifs://X.X.X.XT auth-type all

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417
A network engineer wants to send multicast traffic between two routers that are separated by an IP cloud. The network engineer has access to the two routers, but does not have administrative control of the devices within the IP cloud. How can this goal be accomplished?

A.    Use IP PIM dense-mode.
B.    Configure a crypto-map based site-to-site VPN between the two routers.
C.    Turn on IP multicast routing.
D.    Configure a generic routing encapsulation tunnel.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 418
Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    registration request
B.    registration reply
C.    resolution request
D.    resolution reply
E.    redirect

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 419
During an SSL session between a client and a server, who is responsible for generating the master key that generates the symmetric keys that are use during the session?

A.    cipher suite
B.    public key infrastructure
C.    client browser
D.    web server

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 420
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order of DMVPN process execution for quick mode exchange on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 421
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NEW QUESTION 1
In a Client to Server scenario, which represents that the packet has already checked against the tables and the Rule Base?

A.    Big l
B.    Little o
C.    Little i
D.    Big O

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.    Gateway API
B.    Management API
C.    OPSC SDK
D.    Threat Prevention API

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#introduction%20

NEW QUESTION 3
What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

A.    2
B.    1
C.    4
D.    6

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm

NEW QUESTION 4
In R80.10, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

A.    Through the Unified Policy.
B.    Through the Mobile Console.
C.    From SmartDashboard.
D.    From the Dedicated Mobility Tab.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
What command verifies that the API server is responding?

A.    api stat
B.    api status
C.    show api_status
D.    app_get_status

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.hurricanelabs.com/blog/check-point-api-merging-management-servers-with-r80-10

NEW QUESTION 6
Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

A.    fw tab -t
B.    fw tab -s
C.    fw tab -n
D.    fw tab -k

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

A.    Capsule Workspace
B.    Capsule Mail
C.    Capsule VPN
D.    Secure Workspace

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/mobile-secure-workspace/

NEW QUESTION 8
You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.    write mem <filename>
B.    show config -f <filename>
C.    save config -o <filename>
D.    save configuration <filename>

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

A.    fwm
B.    cpd
C.    cpwd
D.    fwssd

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R80.10?

A.    Identity Awareness Web Services
B.    OPSEC SDK
C.    Mobile Access
D.    Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

A.    AES-128
B.    AES-256
C.    DES
D.    3DES

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which GUI client is supported in R80?

A.    SmartProvisioning
B.    SmartView Tracker
C.    SmartView Monitor
D.    SmartLog

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
An Account Unit is the interface between the ____ and the ____.

A.    Users, Domain
B.    Gateway, Resources
C.    System, Database
D.    Clients, Server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
The process ____ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.

A.    FWD
B.    CPLMD
C.    FWM
D.    CPD

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A.    Management Dashboard
B.    Gateway
C.    Personal User Storage
D.    Behavior Risk Engine

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/docs/DOC-3072-sandblast-mobile-architecture-overview

NEW QUESTION 16
Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?

A.    LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID.
B.    DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS.
C.    LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID.
D.    LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

A.    Check Point Remote User
B.    Check Point Capsule Workspace
C.    Check Point Mobile Web Portal
D.    Check Point Capsule Remote

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/41723.htm

NEW QUESTION 18
Connections to the Check Point R80 Web API use what protocol?

A.    HTTPS
B.    RPC
C.    VPN
D.    SIC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19
What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.    Threat Emulation
B.    Threat Simulator
C.    Threat Extraction
D.    Threat Cloud

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20
By default, the R80 web API uses which content-type in its response?

A.    Java Script
B.    XML
C.    Text
D.    JSON

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of to the following is true about Capsule Connect?

A.    It is a full layer 3 VPN client.
B.    It offers full enterprise mobility management.
C.    It is supported only on IOS phones and Windows PCs.
D.    It does not support all VPN authentication methods.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22
The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will cpuse agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

A.    Six times per day.
B.    Seven times per day.
C.    Every two hours.
D.    Every three hours.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23
Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

A.    Correlation Unit
B.    SmartEvent Unit
C.    SmartEvent Server
D.    Log Server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You deploy an application that performs sentiment analysis on the data stored in Azure Cosmos DB. Recently, you loaded a large amount of data to the database. The data was for a customer named Contoso, Ltd. You discover that queries for the Contoso data are slow to complete, and the queries slow the entire application. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the queries to complete. The solution must minimize costs. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Change the requests units.
B.    Change the partitioning strategy.
C.    Change the transaction isolation level.
D.    Migrate the data to the Cosmos DB database.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company recently deployed several hardware devices that contain sensors. The sensors generate new data on an hourly basis. The data generated is stored on-premises and retained for several years. During the past two months, the sensors generated 300 GB of data. You plan to move the data to Azure and then perform advanced analytics on the data. You need to recommend an Azure storage solution for the data. Which storage solution should you recommend?

A.    Azure Queue storage
B.    Azure Cosmos Database
C.    Azure Blob storage
D.    Azure SQL Database

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/data-storage

NEW QUESTION 3
You are developing a mobile application that will perform optical character recognition (OCR) from photos. The application will annotate the photos by using metadata, store the photos in Azure Blob storage, and then score the photos by using an Azure Machine Learning model. What should you use to process the data?

A.    Azure Event Hubs
B.    Azure Functions
C.    Azure Stream Analytics
D.    Azure Logic Apps

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You have thousands of images that contain text. You need to process the text from the images into a machine-readable character stream. Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?

A.    Translator Text
B.    Text Analytics
C.    Computer Vision
D.    Image Moderation API

Answer: C
Explanation:
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract the recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

NEW QUESTION 5
You are designing an Al workflow that will aggregate data stored in Azure as JSON documents. You expect to store more than 2 TB of new data daily. You need to choose the data storage service for the data. The solution must minimize costs. Which data storage service should you choose?

A.    Azure File Storage
B.    Azure Manage Disks
C.    Azure Data Lake Storage
D.    Azure Blob Storage

Answer: D
Explanation:
Generally, Data Lake will be a bit more expensive although they are in close range of each other. Blob storage has more options for pricing depending upon things like how frequently you need to access your data (cold vs hot storage). Data Lake is priced on volume, so it will go up as you reach certain tiers of volume.
http://blog.pragmaticworks.com/azure-data-lake-vs-azure-blob-storage-in-data-warehousing

NEW QUESTION 6
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using Azure Machine Learning algorithms. The developers of the application use a mix of Windows-based and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to shared GitHub repositories. You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application. What is the best tool to use? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B.    Azure Notebooks
C.    Azure Machine Learning Studio
D.    Microsoft Visual Studio

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

NEW QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster. You are troubleshooting a node issue. You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection to the AKS node.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

NEW QUESTION 8
You need to deploy cognitive search. You provision an Azure Search service. What should you do next?

A.    Search by using the .NET SDK.
B.    Load data.
C.    Search by using the REST API.
D.    Create an index.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You create a data source, a skillset, and an index. These three components become part of an indexer that pulls each piece together into a single multi-phased operation.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/cognitive-search-tutorial-blob

NEW QUESTION 9
You create several AI models in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You deploy the models to a production environment. You need to monitor the compute performance of the models.
Solution: You write a custom scoring script.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to enable Model data collection.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-enable-data-collection

NEW QUESTION 10
Your company has recently purchased and deployed 25,000 IoT devices. You need to recommend a data analysis solution for the devices that meets the following requirements:
– Each device must use its own credentials for identity.
– Each device must be able to route data to multiple endpoints.
– The solution must require the minimum amount of customized code.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft Azure Notification Hubs
B.    Microsoft Azure Event Hubs
C.    Microsoft Azure IoT Hub
D.    Microsoft Azure Service Bus

Answer: C
Explanation:
An IoT hub has a default built-in endpoint. You can create custom endpoints to route messages to by linking other services in your subscription to the hub. Individual devices connect using credentials stored in the IoT hub’s identity registry.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-security

NEW QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop
You are designing an Al solution that will analyze media data. The data will be stored in Azure Blob storage. You need to ensure that the storage account is encrypted by using a key generated by the hardware security module (HSM) of your company. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 12
HotSpot
You plan to deploy an Azure Data Factory pipeline that will perform the following: Move data from on-premises to the cloud. Consume Azure Cognitive Services APIs. You need to recommend which technologies the pipeline should use. The solution must minimize custom code. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Machine Learning model that is deployed to a web service. You plan to publish the web service by using the name ml.contoso.com. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that access to the web service is encrypted. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS)
B.    Obtain an SSL certificate
C.    Add a deployment slot
D.    Update the web service
E.    Update DNS
F.    Create an Azure Key Vault

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-secure-web-service

NEW QUESTION 14
……

Case Study 1 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. has an office in New York to serve its North American customers and an office in Paris to serve its European customers. Each office has a small data center that hosts Active Directory services and a few off-the-shelf software solutions used by internal users. The network contains a single Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named contoso.com. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect is used to extend identity management to Azure.
……

NEW QUESTION 96
Which RBAC role should you assign to the KeyManagers group?

A.    Cognitive Services Contributor
B.    Security Manager
C.    Cognitive Services User
D.    Security Administrator

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 97
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the technical requirements. What is the best data storage solution to recommend? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Azure Databricks
B.    Azure SQL Database
C.    Azure Table Storage
D.    Azure Cosmos DB

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 98
You need to design the Butler chatbot solution to meet the technical requirements. What is the best channel and pricing tier to use? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal Select the BEST answer.)

A.    standard channels that use the S1 pricing tier
B.    standard channels that use the Free pricing tier
C.    premium channels that use the Free pricing tier
D.    premium channels that use the S1 pricing tier

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 99
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one another, but can communicate with required services. Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    vSphere Host Firewall
B.    Private VLAN
C.    VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
D.    Port Filtering

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 2
A vSphere administrator has been tasked with enabling upstream failure detection for networking in an environment that does not support link state tracking. Which statement is a VMware recommended option?

A.    Satisfy prerequisites and enable Beacon probing.
B.    Enable Explicit failover order and ensure Failback is selected.
C.    Enable Explicit failover order and ensure Notify Switches is selected.
D.    Configure a port-channel with LACP.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
What three steps are necessary to enable Jumbo Frames for use with an iSCSI storage array? (Choose three.)

A.    Configure the MTU on the VMKernel port.
B.    Configure the MTU on the virtual switch.
C.    Configure the MTU on the physical switch.
D.    Configure the MTU on the LAG group.
E.    Configure the MTU on the VTEP.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 4
When trying to export the vApp to the OVF, the option is grayed out. What solution allows for the export of a vApp?

A.    The vApp is marked as Non-Exportable.
B.    Logout of the vSphere Client and use the vSphere WebClient.
C.    Change the portgroup where the VMs are connected to.
D.    PowerOff the vApp.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two formats are supported for exporting a VM to a storage media? (Choose two.)

A.    EXE
B.    OVF
C.    OVA
D.    ISO

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 6
Which two resource types can be limited on the vApp level? (Choose two.)

A.    Network
B.    CPU
C.    Storage
D.    Memory

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 7
A vSphere administrator is required to apply security hardening policies following the VMware vSphere Hardening Guide recommendations. Which tool enables native compliance reporting for these guidelines?

A.    VMware vCenter Server
B.    VMware vRealize Operations Manager
C.    VMware vSphere Update Manager
D.    VMware AirWatch

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which state does VMware recommend an ESXi host be in before removing the ESXi host from a DRS cluster?

A.    Powered off
B.    Quarantine mode
C.    Disconnected
D.    Maintenance mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which password meets the default password requirements in ESXi 6.x?

A.    Xqa_hin3
B.    xTaMEhb!
C.    xQA!3h
D.    Xqavntthi3

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Which function key command will allow a vSphere administrator to access ESXi shell?

A.    Alt + F12
B.    Alt + F1
C.    Alt + F2
D.    Alt + F11

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct when licensing an ESXi 6.x host? (Choose two.)

A.    ESXi licenses can only applied to ESXi hosts connected to a vCenter Server.
B.    Bulk licensing requires vSphere Auto Deploy to be enabled.
C.    ESXi licenses can be assigned utilizing the ESXi host client.
D.    Bulk licensing requires vSphere PowerCLI.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about LACP support with the vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)

A.    LACP works with MAC hash load balancing.
B.    LACP works with software iSCSI multipathing.
C.    LACP does not work with host profiles.
D.    LACP does not work with port mirroring.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 94
You deploy Microsoft Azure Information Protection. You need to ensure that a security administrator named SecAdmin1 can always read and inspect data protected by Azure Rights Management (Azure RMS). What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, add User1 to the Discovery Manager role group.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add User1 to the Security Reader role group.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, add User1 to the Compliance Administrator role group.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, enable the super user feature and assign the role to SecAdmin1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-super-users

NEW QUESTION 95
You create a new Microsoft 365 subscription and assign Microsoft 365 E3 licenses to 100 users. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you enable auditing. You are planning the auditing strategy. Which three activities will be audited by default? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    An administrator creates a new Microsoft SharePoint site collection.
B.    An administrator creates a new mail flow rule.
C.    A user shares a Microsoft SharePoint folder with an external user.
D.    A user delegates permissions to their mailbox.
E.    A user purges messages from their mailbox.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance?redirectSourcePath=%252farticle%252f0d4d0f35-390b-4518-800e-0c7ec95e946c

NEW QUESTION 96
Your company has 5,000 Windows 10 devices. All the devices are protected by using Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). You need to view which Windows Defender ATP alert events have a high severity and occurred during the last seven days. What should you use in Windows Defender ATP?

A.    The threat intelligence API
B.    Automated investigations
C.    Threat analytics
D.    Advanced hunting

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/investigate-alerts-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/automated-investigations-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection

NEW QUESTION 97
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant. The company sells products online and processes credit card information. You need to be notified if a file stored in Microsoft SharePoint Online contains credit card information. The file must be removed automatically from its current location until an administrator can review its contents. What should you use?

A.    a Security & Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policy
B.    a Microsoft Cloud App Security access policy
C.    a Security & Compliance retention policy
D.    a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 98
Your company has five security information and event management (SIEM) appliances. The traffic logs from each appliance are saved to a file share named Logs. You need to analyze the traffic logs. What should you do from Microsoft Cloud App Security?

A.    Click Investigate, and then click Activity log.
B.    Click Control, and then click Policies. Create a file policy.
C.    Click Discover, and then click Create snapshot report.
D.    Click Investigate, and then click Files.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/investigate-an-activity-in-office-365-cas

NEW QUESTION 99
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 Windows 10 devices. You perform a proof of concept (PoC) deployment of Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for 10 test devices. During the onboarding process, you configure Windows Defender ATP-related data to be stored in the United States. You plan to onboard all the devices to Windows Defender ATP. You need to store the Windows Defender ATP data in Europe. What should you first?

A.    Create a workspace.
B.    Onboard a new device.
C.    Delete the workspace.
D.    Offboard the test devices.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 100
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to be notified if users receive email containing a file that has a virus. What should you do?

A.    From the Exchange admin center, create an in-place eDiscovery & hold.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data governance event.
C.    From the Exchange admin center, create an anti-malware policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a safe attachments policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/exchange-online-service-description/anti-spam-and-anti-malware-protection

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to notify the manager of the human resources department when a user in the department shares a file or folder from the department’s Microsoft SharePoint site. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create an alert policy.
B.    From the SharePoint site, create an alert.
C.    From the SharePoint admin center, modify the sharing settings.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

NEW QUESTION 102
Your company uses Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) and Windows Defender ATP. You need to integrate Windows Defender ATP and Azure ATP. What should you do?

A.    From Azure ATP, configure the notifications and reports.
B.    From Azure ATP, configure the data sources.
C.    From Windows Defender Security Center, configure the Machine management settings.
D.    From Windows Defender Security Center, configure the General settings.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/integrate-wd-atp

NEW QUESTION 103
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. All users are assigned the Enterprise Mobility + Security license. You need to ensure that when users join their device to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), the device is enrolled in Microsoft Intune automatically. What should you configure?

A.    Enrollment restrictions from the Intune admin center.
B.    device enrollment managers from the Intune admin center.
C.    MAM User scope from the Azure Active Directory admin center.
D.    MDM User scope from the Azure Active Directory admin center.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/windows-enroll

NEW QUESTION 104
Your company uses Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) and Microsoft Intune to co-manage devices. Which two actions can be performed only from Intune? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Deploy applications to Windows 10 devices.
B.    Deploy VPN profiles to iOS devices.
C.    Deploy VPN profiles to Windows 10 devices.
D.    Publish applications to Android devices.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/create-vpn-profiles

NEW QUESTION 105
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to ensure that users can manage the configuration settings for all the Windows 10 devices in your organization. What should you configure?

A.    the Enrollment restrictions
B.    the mobile device management (MDM) authority
C.    the Exchange on-premises access settings
D.    the Windows enrollment settings

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/mdm-authority-set

NEW QUESTION 106
You have computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. You plan to delay the installation of new Windows builds so that the IT department can test application compatibility. You need to prevent Windows from being updated for the next 30 days. Which two Group Policy settings should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Select when Quality Updates are received.
B.    Select when Preview Builds and Feature Updates are received.
C.    Turn off auto-restart for updates during active hours.
D.    Manage preview builds.
E.    Automatic updates detection frequency.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://insider.windows.com/en-us/for-business-organization-admin/

NEW QUESTION 107
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You need to provide a user with the ability to sign up for Microsoft Store for Business for contoso.com. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which role should you assign to the user?

A.    Cloud application administrator
B.    Application administrator
C.    Global administrator
D.    Service administrator

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/roles-and-permissions-microsoft-store-for-business

NEW QUESTION 108
You are deploying Microsoft Intune. You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune. When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error. You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You create the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 109
Your company uses on-premises Windows Server File Classification Infrastructure (FCI). Some documents on the on-premises file servers are classified as Confidential. You migrate the files from the on-premises file servers to Microsoft SharePoint Online. You need to ensure that you can implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies for the uploaded file based on the Confidential classification. What should you do first?

A.    From the SharePoint admin center, configure hybrid search.
B.    From the SharePoint admin center, create a managed property.
C.    From the Security & Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DataClassification cmdlet.
D.    From the Security & Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DlpComplianceRule cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-dlp/new-dataclassification?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 110
You are testing a data loss prevention (DLP) policy to protect the sharing of credit card information with external users. During testing, you discover that a user can share credit card information with external users by using email. However, the user is prevented from sharing files that contain credit card information by using Microsoft SharePoint Online. You need to prevent the user from sharing the credit card information by using email and SharePoint. What should you configure?

A.    the locations of the DLP policy
B.    the user overrides of the DLP policy rule
C.    the status of the DLP policy
D.    the conditions of the DLP policy rule

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 111
……

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NEW QUESTION 101
Which product was first provided commercially by Cisco?

A.    Fiber-optic networking
B.    Multiprotocol routers
C.    Wireless networking
D.    Remote access devices

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 102
Which is a key benefit of Cisco UCS?

A.    Hardware-centric design
B.    Distributed infrastructure management
C.    Integrated third-party applications
D.    Unified network fabric

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
Which Cisco technology uses software-defined segmentation to simplify the provisioning of network access, accelerate security operations, and consistently enforce policy?

A.    Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
B.    Cisco Talos
C.    Cisco Stealthwatch Engine
D.    Cisco TrustSec

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 104
Which collaboration product can count meeting participants and provide analytics for usage and resource planning?

A.    Cisco Webex Room Series
B.    Cisco Webex Board
C.    Cisco Mx Series
D.    Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 105
Which Cisco cloud-managed solution allows customers to unify management in a secure, browser-based dashboard?

A.    Cisco Hyperflex
B.    Cisco UCS
C.    Cisco Meraki
D.    Cisco Intersight

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106
Which of the fllowing could be defined as a long-term plan that enables the business to work toward achieving its vision by considering business operations, value proposition, customers, and finance?

A.    Mission
B.    Strategy
C.    Goals
D.    Objectives

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 107
What is the negative impact of digitization on businesses?

A.    Moving applications away from the web.
B.    Increasing the security of data.
C.    Making old experiences seem new.
D.    Putting demands on the network.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 108
What is one benefit of the Cisco SD-WAN solution?

A.    Providing guest networks for customers, system integrators, and vendors.
B.    Continuous monitoring of the entire network environment in order to detect abnormal wireless activity.
C.    Establishing transport-independent WAN for lower cost and higher diversity.
D.    Supporting agile software development and deployment processes through a single point of management.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 109
Which of the following are included on the Offering Pattern Reference Model?

A.    pricing schedules, service agreements, routes to market, and opportunity paradigms
B.    offerings, pricing schedules, service agreements, and routes to market
C.    offeings, routes to market, pricing schedules, and service agreements
D.    offerings, markets, pricing methods, location, and routes to market

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 110
Which of the following is not a feature of Cisco ONE software?

A.    License portability and fleibility.
B.    Software license tied to hardware.
C.    Access to innovation, upgrades and new capabilities.
D.    Simple set of solutions in networks and cloud.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 111
In addressing the full attack continuum, what type of capabilities are required before an attack?

A.    Preventive and Response
B.    Preventive and Detective
C.    Predictive and Response
D.    Preventive and Predictive

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 112
Which of the following are included in Cisco’s current networking product lines?

A.    Switches, routers, and application delivery controllers.
B.    Application delivery controllers, LAN, and WAN.
C.    Switches, routers, LAN, and WAN.
D.    Switches, routers, application delivery controllers, LAN, and WAN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 113
Which of the following could be considered a business outcome?

A.    Respect employees, customers, and suppliers.
B.    To nourish people and the planet.
C.    Implement a direct-to-customer experience by the end of FY 2021.
D.    Customer experience/innovation fulfillment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 114
Which Cisco network administration product enables the creation and enforcement of security and access polices for a company’s connected endpoint devices?

A.    Cisco ldentity Services Engine
B.    Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
C.    Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise
D.    Cisco TrustSec

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 115
Which phrase describes the benefits of the Cisco UCS product range?

A.    Cloud-based security solution allowing customers to be protected on any device at any location.
B.    Communication on an all-in-one platform designed to fit the way customers work.
C.    Increased productivity, reduced total cost of ownership, and scalability to the data center.
D.    Cloud-based service allowing customers to set up and configure an entire virtual data center in minutes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 116
How is creating and capturing business value achieved by Cisco?

A.    Delving into the main issues faced by customers and getting feedback from previous work done.
B.    Measuring the efforts of every team in delivering on their promises.
C.    Determining the business priorities, business capabilities, and business solutions that enable the customer-defined outcomes.
D.    Strategizing with the sales team on how to empower their sales personnel in attaining business goals.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 117
Which of the following are features of the Cisco Firepower NGFW?

A.    Threat focused
B.    Unified management
C.    Cloud based
D.    Fully integrated

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 118
Which type of business requirements define the required parameter for a solution?

A.    Transitional requirements
B.    General business requirements
C.    Technical requirements
D.    Functional requirements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 119
What key aspect of digitization allows the deployment of new services without lengthy and costly investments in server or networking infrastructure?

A.    Streaming services
B.    Enterprise network architecture
C.    Cloud computing
D.    Data science

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 120
Which of the following is not a factor that drives the target state of the business at a customer organization?

A.    Mission
B.    Values
C.    Vision
D.    Client engagement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 121
……

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NEW QUESTION 411
A security engineer is deploying an IdP to broker authentication between applications. These applications all utilize SAML 2.0 for authentication. Users log into the IdP with their credentials and are given a list of applications they may access. One of the application’s authentications is not functional when a user initiates an authentication attempt from the IdP. The engineer modifies the configuration so users browse to the application first, which corrects the issue. Which of the following BEST describes the root cause?

A.    The application only supports SP-initiated authentication.
B.    The IdP only supports SAML 1.0.
C.    There is an SSL certificate mismatch between the IdP and the SaaS application.
D.    The user is not provisioned correctly on the IdP.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 412
A security manager recently categorized an information system. During the categorization effort, the manager determined the loss of integrity of a specific information type would impact business significantly. Based on this, the security manager recommends the implementation of several solutions. Which of the following, when combined, would BEST mitigate this risk? (Choose two.)

A.    Access control
B.    Whitelisting
C.    Signing
D.    Validation
E.    Boot attestation

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 413
A penetration test is being scoped for a set of web services with API endpoints. The APIs will be hosted on existing web application servers. Some of the new APIs will be available to unauthenticated users, but some will only be available to authenticated users. Which of the following tools or activities would the penetration tester MOST likely use or do during the engagement? (Choose two.)

A.    Static code analyzer
B.    Intercepting proxy
C.    Port scanner
D.    Reverse engineering
E.    Reconnaissance gathering
F.    User acceptance testing

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 414
As part of the development process for a new system, the organization plans to perform requirements analysis and risk assessment. The new system will replace a legacy system, which the organization has used to perform data analytics. Which of the following is MOST likely to be part of the activities conducted by management during this phase of the project?

A.    Static code analysis and peer review of all application code.
B.    Validation of expectations relating to system performance and security.
C.    Load testing the system to ensure response times is acceptable to stakeholders.
D.    Design reviews and user acceptance testing to ensure the system has been deployed properly.
E.    Regression testing to evaluate interoperability with the legacy system during the deployment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 415
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically destroyed. Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?

A.    Sovereignty
B.    E-waste
C.    Remanence
D.    Deduplication

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 416
During a criminal investigation, the prosecutor submitted the original hard drive from the suspect’s computer as evidence. The defense objected during the trial proceedings, and the evidence was rejected. Which of the following practices should the prosecutor’s forensics team have used to ensure the suspect’s data would be admissible as evidence? (Choose two.)

A.    Follow chain of custody best practices.
B.    Create an identical image of the original hard drive, store the original securely, and then perform forensics only on the imaged drive.
C.    Use forensics software on the original hard drive and present generated reports as evidence.
D.    Create a tape backup of the original hard drive and present the backup as evidence.
E.    Create an exact image of the original hard drive for forensics purposes, and then place the original back in service.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 417
An organization just merged with an organization in another legal jurisdiction and must improve its network security posture in ways that do not require additional resources to implement data isolation. One recommendation is to block communication between endpoint PCs. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A.    Installing HIDS
B.    Configuring a host-based firewall
C.    Configuring EDR
D.    Implementing network segmentation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 418
After several industry comnpetitors suffered data loss as a result of cyebrattacks, the Chief Operating Officer (COO) of a company reached out to the information security manager to review the organization’s security stance. As a result of the discussion, the COO wants the organization to meet the following criteria:
– Blocking of suspicious websites
– Prevention of attacks based on threat intelligence
– Reduction in spam
– Identity-based reporting to meet regulatory compliance
– Prevention of viruses based on signature
– Project applications from web-based threats
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation the information security manager could make?

A.    Reconfigure existing IPS resources
B.    Implement a WAF
C.    Deploy a SIEM solution
D.    Deploy a UTM solution
E.    Implement an EDR platform

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 419
A company’s chief cybersecurity architect wants to configure mutual authentication to access an internal payroll website. The architect has asked the administration team to determine the configuration that would provide the best defense against MITM attacks. Which of the folowing implementation approaches would BEST support the architect’s goals?

A.    Utilize a challenge-response prompt as required input at username/password entry.
B.    Implement TLS and require the client to use its own certificate during handshake.
C.    Configure a web application proxy and institute monitoring of HTTPS transactions.
D.    Install a reverse proxy in the corporate DMZ configured to decrypt TLS sessions.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 420
A company is not familiar with the risks associated with IPv6. The systems administrator wants to isolate IPv4 from IPv6 traffic between two different network segments. Which of the following should the company implement? (Choose two.)

A.    Use an internal firewall to block UDP port 3544.
B.    Disable network discovery protocol on all company routers.
C.    Block IP protocol 41 using Layer 3 switches.
D.    Disable the DHCPv6 service from all routers.
E.    Drop traffic for ::/0 at the edge firewall.
F.    Implement a 6in4 proxy server.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 421
With which of the following departments should an engineer for a consulting firm coordinate when determining the control and reporting requirements for storage of sensitive, proprietary customer information?

A.    Human resources
B.    Financial
C.    Sales
D.    Legal counsel

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 422
The Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) from two different companies are discussing the highly sensitive prospect of merging their respective companies together. Both have invited their Chief Information Officers (CIOs) to discern how they can securely and digitaly communicate, and the following criteria are collectively determined:
– Must be encrypted on the email servers and clients
– Must be OK to transmit over unsecure Internet connections
Which of the following communication methods would be BEST to recommend?

A.    Force TLS between domains.
B.    Enable STARTTLS on both domains.
C.    Use PGP-encrypted emails.
D.    Switch both domains to utilize DNSSEC.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 423
A bank is initiating the process of acquiring another smaller bank. Before negotiations happen between the organizations, which of the follwing business documents would be used as the FIRST step in the process?

A.    MOU
B.    OLA
C.    BPA
D.    NDA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 424
A company wants to confirm sufficient executable space protection is in place for scenarios in which malware may be attempting buffer overflow attacks. Which of the following should the security engineer check?

A.    NX/XN
B.    ASLR
C.    strcpy
D.    ECC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 425
Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in secure environment?

A.    NDA
B.    MOU
C.    BIA
D.    SLA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 426
Within the past six months, a company has experienced a series of attacks directed at various collaboration tools. Additionally, sensitive information was compromised during a recent security breach of a remote access session from an unsecure site. As a result, the company is requiring all collaboration tools to comply with the following:
– Secure messaging between internal users using digital signatures
– Secure sites for video-conferencing sessions
– Presence information for all office employees
– Restriction of certain types of messages to be allowed into the network
Which of the following applications must be configured to meet the new requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Remote desktop
B.    VoIP
C.    Remote assistance
D.    Email
E.    Instant messaging
F.    Social media websites

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 427
Following a recent data breach, a company has hired a new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO). The CISO is very concerned about the response time to the previous breach and wishes to know how the security team expects to react to a future attack. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this goal while minimizing disruption?

A.    Perform a black box assessment.
B.    Hire an external red team audit.
C.    Conduct a tabletop exercise.
D.    Recreate the previous breach.
E.    Conduct an external vulnerability assessment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 428
A technician is validating compliance with organizational policies. The user and machine accounts in the AD are not set to expire, which is non-compliant. Which of the following network tools would provide this type of information?

A.    SIEM server
B.    IDS appliance
C.    SCAP scanner
D.    HTTP interceptor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 429
An organization’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO) was the target of several different social engineering attacks recently. The CFO has subsequently worked closely with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to increase awareness of what attacks may look like. An unexpected email arrives in the CFO’s inbox from a familiar name with an attachment. Which of the following should the CISO task a security analyst with to determine whether or not the attachment is safe?

A.    Place it in a malware sandbox.
B.    Perform a code review of the attachment.
C.    Conduct a memory dump of the CFO’s PC.
D.    Run a vulnerability scan on the email server.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 430
An organization is currently performing a market scan for managed security services and EDR capability. Which of the following business documents should be released to the prospective vendors in the first step of the process? (Choose two.)

A.    MSA
B.    RFP
C.    NDA
D.    RFI
E.    MOU
F.    RFQ

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 431
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NEW QUESTION 466
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP. Which tool should you use?

A.    Services
B.    Authorization Manager
C.    Active Directory Sites and Services
D.    TMP Management
E.    Active Directory Users and Computers
F.    Active Directory Domains and Trusts

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://kb.watchfulsoftware.com/pages/viewpage.action?pageId=1999181

NEW QUESTION 467
You have a Hyper-V failover cluster named Cluster1. On Cluster1, you create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to move VM1 by using quick migration. What should you use?

A.    the failover Cluster manager console
B.    the Move-VM cmdlet
C.    the Hyper-V Manager console
D.    the Start-VMFailover cmdlet

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hyper-v-live-migration-methods/

NEW QUESTION 468
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is in workgroup. Server2 is in a domain. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that you can use live migration to move VM1 from Server1 to Server2. What should you do first?

A.    Create a hidden share named LiveMig$ on Server2.
B.    Configure the Administration account on Server2 to use the same password.
C.    Add Server1 to a domain.
D.    Modify the Integration Services settings of VM1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/hyper-v/deploy/set-up-hosts-for-live-migration-without-failover-clustering

NEW QUESTION 469
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Live migration is configured in Server1 and Server2. You sign in to Server1, and then you create a virtual machine named VM1 on Server1. You move VM1 to Server2 by using live migration. You need to use live migration to move VM1 back to Server1. You must perform the move from Server1. What should you do first?

A.    Enable Windows PowerShell remoting on Server2.
B.    Configure delegation on the Server1 computer object.
C.    Configure delegation on the Server2 computer object.
D.    Enable Windows PowerShell remoting on Server1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/scripting/learn/remoting/running-remote-commands?view=powershell-6

NEW QUESTION 470
Your company has offices in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains one domain and two sites named Montreal and Seattle. The Seattle office contains two domain controllers named DC4 and DC5. You physically relocate DC5 from the Seattle office to the Montreal office. You discover that DC5 continues to authenticate users in the Seattle office. You need to ensure that the Seattle office users are authenticated by DC4, unless DC4 is unavailable. What should you do?

A.    From Active Directory Sites and Services, move the DC5 server object.
B.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, move the computer account of DC5.
C.    From Active Directory Sites and services, modify the NTDS Site Settings for the Seattle office.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the NTDS Setting for the computer account of DC5.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2015/03/03/step-by-step-setting-up-active-directory-sites-subnets-site-links/

NEW QUESTION 471
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains one domain and two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains a domain controller named DC1. Site2 contains a domain controller named DC2. Replication is allowed between the sites daily from 01:00 to 05:00. At 14:00, an administrator deletes an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 from DC1. One hour later, on DC2, an administrator creates a user account named User1 in OU1. Where will you find the User1 object after replication occurs between the sites?

A.    in the Active Directory Recycle Bin
B.    in the ActiveDirectoryUpdate container
C.    in the LostAndFound container
D.    in the DomainUpdates container

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://techguyvijay.blogspot.com/2012/03/lost-and-found-folder-in-active.html

NEW QUESTION 472
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a single volume that is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). BitLocker is configured to save encryption keys to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Server1 is configured to perform a daily system image backup. The motherboard on Server1 is upgraded. After the upgrade, Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 fails to start. You need to start the operating system on Server1 as soon as possible. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media. Run startrec.exe.
B.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Perform a system image recovery.
C.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server. Run tpm.msc.
D.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media.
Run the BitLocker Recovery Password Viewer tool.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 473
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five hard drives (HDDs) and two solid state drives (SSDs). You add four of the HDDs and the two SSDs to a storage pool. On Server1, you need to create a mirror space that has storage tiers. What should you use?

A.    The New-VirtualDisk cmdlet
B.    The Disk Management console
C.    The New-VHD cmdlet
D.    The diskpart.exe command

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askpfeplat/2013/10/20/storage-spaces-how-to-configure-storage-tiers-with-windows-server-2012-r2/

NEW QUESTION 474
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user account named User1. Server1 hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone named adatum.com. You need to provide User1 with the ability to create only A records in the adatum.com zone. What should you do?

A.    Modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer object.
B.    Run the New Delegation for the adatum.com zone.
C.    Install and configure IP Address Management (IPAM) Server.
D.    Modify the Security settings of the adatum.com zone.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2008-R2-and-2008/cc753213(v%3dws.11)

NEW QUESTION 475
You have a server named Server1. You install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1. You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to set the access scope of all the DHCP servers that are managed by IPAM. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which user role should you assign to User1?

A.    DNS Record Administrator Role
B.    IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role
C.    IP Address Record Administrator Role
D.    IPAM DHCP Administrator Role

Answer: D
Explanation:
The IPAM DHCP administrator role completely manages DHCP servers.

NEW QUESTION 476
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role installed. The domain contains a domain local group named Group1. You create a rights policy template named Template1. You need to ensure that all the members of Group1 can use Template1. What should you do?

A.    Configure the email address attribute of Group1 and configure the email address attribute of all the users who are members of Group1.
B.    Convert the scope of Group1 to global and configure the email address attribute of Group1.
C.    Convert the scope of Group1 to universal and assign Group1 the rights to Template1.
D.    Configure the email address attribute of all the users who are members of Group1 and assign Group1 the rights to Template1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/13130.ad-rms-troubleshooting-guide.aspx

NEW QUESTION 477
Drag and Drop
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a USB flash drive that contains a bootable Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE). The flash drive has the drive letter F. An administrator provides you with a custom Windows RE image named C:\Images\Boot.wim. You need to ensure that when you start a client computer from the USB flash drive, the custom Windows RE image loads. Which command should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 478
You have a server named Server1 that runs Window server 2012 R2. You install the DHCP server role on Server1. You need to create a multicast scope on Server1. What is a valid IP address range to use for the multicast scope?

A.    255.255.1.10 – 255.255.2.10
B.    224.16.1.10 – 224.16.2.10
C.    169.254.1.10 – 169.254.2.10
D.    172.16.1.10 – 172.16.2.10
E.    10.0.1.10 – 10.0.2.10

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.techveze.com/creating-configuring-superscopes-multicast-scopes/

NEW QUESTION 479
You have two servers named Server1 and server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. On volume D of Server1, you create a share named Share1. Volume D has 1 TB of free space. Server2 uses 20 GB of disk space. 1 GB of data is modified daily. You install Windows Server Backup on Server2. You configure Windows Server Backup to perform a daily backup of Server2 and to store the backup in \\Server1\Share1. The scheduled backup completes successfully on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday. Which backups will be available in \\Server1?

A.    The daily backup from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.
B.    Only the daily backup from Wednesday.
C.    The daily backup from Monday and a differential backup from Wednesday.
D.    The daily backup from Monday and incremental backups from Tuesday and Wednesday.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. A domain user named User1 is a member of the following domain groups:
– DnsAdmins
– Backup Operators
– Account Operators
– DHCP Administrators
– Hyper-V Administrators
– Allowed RODC Password Replication Group
User1 is authenticated by RODC1. You discover that the password for User1 is not cached on RODC1. Which two groups prevent the password from being cached on RODC1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    DnsAdmins
B.    Allowed RODC Password Replication Group
C.    Backup Operators
D.    DHCP Administrators
E.    Hyper-V Administrators
F.    Account Operators

Answer: CF
Explanation:
http://www.rebeladmin.com/2014/10/password-replication-in-rodc/

NEW QUESTION 481
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a single volume that is encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). BitLocker is configured to save encryption keys to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Server1 is configured to perform a daily system image backup. The motherboard on Server1 is upgraded. After the upgrade, Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1 fails to start. You need to start the operating system on Server1 as soon as possible. What should you do?

A.    Move the disk to a server that has a model of the old motherboard.
Start the server from the installation media.
Run the BitLocker Recovery Password Viewer tool.
B.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Run startrec.exe.
C.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Perform a system image recovery.
D.    Start Server1 from the installation media.
Run bcdboot.exe.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/928202/how-to-use-the-bitlocker-recovery-password-viewer-for-active-directory

NEW QUESTION 482
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which NetApp tool views automated, schedule configuration, and performance data for a customer’s SAN from a Web browser?

A.    Virtual Storage Console
B.    OnCommand Workflow Analyzer
C.    Config Advisor
D.    Active IQ

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use both Cisco FC and FCoE switches in their ONTAP environment. According to NetApp best practices, what are two requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    You must use single initiator zoning.
B.    You must create interface groups to isolate FC and FCoE LIFs.
C.    You must create a trunk with multiple virtual LANs.
D.    You must not have more than one target UF for the same physical port in a single fabric zone.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 3
What does the space allocation argument in a LUN create command do?

A.    It thick provisions the LUN.
B.    It only disables space reclamation for the LUN.
C.    It thin provisions the LUN.
D.    It enables or disables space reclamation for the LUN.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
You are deploying an 8-node FAS8200 ONTAP cluster and attaching to an existing FC fabric. Which two ONTAP features would be used to restrict or limit the available paths seen from the host? (Choose two.)

A.    port sets
B.    igroup
C.    VIAN
D.    Selective LUN Map

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 5
You are setting up FC ports and must configure the speeds for both the SAN and the host ports. In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Set the target port speed higher than the switch port speed.
B.    Set the target port speed to auto-negotiation.
C.    Set the target port speed to match the switch port speed.
D.    Set the target port speed lower than the switch port speed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You must relocate a LUN from one AFF A700 HA pair to another AFF A300 HA pair while preserving all storage efficiencies. What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    Copy the volume.
B.    Copy the LUN.
C.    Move the volume.
D.    Move the LUN.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two components must be verified for a supported NetApp SAN confutation? (Choose two.)

A.    host memory
B.    host GPU
C.    host multipath
D.    host bus adapter

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 8
An administrator is migrating from a third-party’s SAN to a newly purchased FAS9000. The administrator decides to use the NetApp Foreign LUN Import (FLI) process. What must the administrator do for this process to work properly?

A.    Create multiple igroups for the Initiator ports.
B.    Create six distinct zones that include specific ports within each zone.
C.    Zone target ports of source storage with initiator ports of destination storage.
D.    Make the destination LUN larger than the foreign LUN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Your server administrator upgraded a Windows 2016 Server from 16 GB to 32 GB HBAs. The application owner is now reporting slower performance to the AFF A700. Which two actions will help troubleshoot performance on the server? (Choose two.)

A.    Verify the HBA model using Hardware Universe.
B.    Verify the HBA firmware using the Interoperability Matrix Tool.
C.    Confirm that LUN mapping exists.
D.    Confirm that Windows Host Utilities is installed.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
What are two examples of supported NetApp FC configurations? (Choose two.)

A.    a single NetApp node directly connected to a single host
B.    a single switched environment with a NetApp node connected to only one host
C.    a dual switched environment with a NetApp node connected to multiple hosts
D.    a single NetApp node directly connected to multiple hosts

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.)

A.    Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers.
B.    Extend timeout timers.
C.    Include the group of guest users in a policy.
D.    Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required port.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGate’s route lookup behavior when searching for a suitable gateway? (Choose two.)

A.    Lookup is done on the trust packet from the session originator.
B.    Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder.
C.    Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of direction.
D.    Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to create a policy-based IPsec VPN tunnel between two FortiGate devices. Which configuration steps must be performed on both devices to support this scenario? (Choose three.)

A.    Define the phase 1 parameters, without enabling IPsec interface mode.
B.    Define the phase 2 parameters.
C.    Set the phase 2 encapsulation method to transport mode.
D.    Define at least one firewall policy, with the action set to IPsec.
E.    Define a route to the remote network over the IPsec tunnel.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 4
Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session?

A.    To remove the NAT operation.
B.    To generate logs.
C.    To finish any inspection operations.
D.    To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
What information is flushed when the chunk-size value is changed in the config DLP settings?

A.    The database for DLP document fingerprinting.
B.    The supported file types in the DLP filters.
C.    The archived files and messages.
D.    The file name patterns in the DLP filters.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
On a FortiGate with a hard disk, how can you upload logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    hourly
B.    real tune
C.    on-demand
D.    store-and-upload

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 7
Which statement about DLP on FortiGate is true?

A.    It can archive files and messages.
B.    It can be applied to a firewall policy in a flow-based VDOM.
C.    Traffic shaping can be applied to DLP sensors.
D.    Files can be sent to FortiSandbox for detecting DLP threats.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to?

A.    A person
B.    A subordinate CA
C.    A root CA
D.    A CRL

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following SD-WAN load-balancing method use interface weight value to distribute traffic? (Choose two.)

A.    Source IP
B.    Spillover
C.    Volume
D.    Session

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 10
What FortiGate components are tested during the hardware test? (Choose three.)

A.    Hard disk
B.    CPU
C.    HA heartbeat
D.    Network interfaces
E.    Administrative access

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which statement about the IP authentication header (AH) used by IPsec is true?

A.    AH does not provide any data integrity or encryption.
B.    AH does not support perfect forward secrecy.
C.    AH provides data integrity but no encryption.
D.    AH provides strong data integrity but weak encryption.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following static routes are not maintained in the routing table? (Choose two.)

A.    Named Address routes
B.    Dynamic routes
C.    ISDB routes
D.    Policy routes

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 13
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You’ve moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM. What happens when you rebuild the new ADOM database?

A.    FortiAnalyzer resets the disk quota of the new ADOM to default.
B.    FortiAnalyzer migrates archive logs to the new ADOM.
C.    FortiAnalyzer migrates analytics logs to the new ADOM.
D.    FortiAnalyzer removes logs from the old ADOM.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of employing RAID with FortiAnalyzer?

A.    To introduce redundancy to your log data.
B.    To provide data separation between ADOMs.
C.    To separate analytical and archive data.
D.    To back up your logs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
How do you restrict an administrator’s access to a subset of your organization’s ADOMs?

A.    Set the ADOM mode to Advanced.
B.    Assign the ADOMs to the administrator’s account.
C.    Configure trusted hosts.
D.    Assign the default Super_User administrator profile.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?

A.    Chart Builder
B.    Export to Report Chart
C.    Dataset Library
D.    Custom View

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
What must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to upload a FortiAnalyzer report to a supported external server? (Choose two.)

A.    SFTP, FTP, or SCP server
B.    Mail server
C.    Output profile
D.    Report scheduling

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 6
If you upgrade your FortiAnalyzer firmware, what report elements can be affected?

A.    Output profiles
B.    Report settings
C.    Report scheduling
D.    Custom datasets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account?

A.    An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group.
B.    An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges.
C.    An account that requires two-factor authentication.
D.    An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
How can you configure FortiAnalyzer to permit administrator logins from only specific locations?

A.    Use static routes
B.    Use administrative profiles
C.    Use trusted hosts
D.    Use secure protocols

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Logs are being deleted from one of your ADOMs earlier that the configured setting for archiving in your data policy. What is the most likely problem?

A.    The total disk space is insufficient and you need to add other disk.
B.    CPU resources are too high.
C.    The ADOM disk quota is set too low based on log rates.
D.    Logs in that ADOM are being forwarded in real-time to another FortiAnalyzer device.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
What FortiGate process caches logs when FortiAnalyzer is not reachable?

A.    logfiled
B.    sqlplugind
C.    oftpd
D.    miglogd

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
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NEW QUESTION 1
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A.    The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B.    The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C.    By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D.    The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following items does an FGFM keepalive message include? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiGate uptime.
B.    FortiGate license information.
C.    FortiGate IPS version.
D.    FortiGate configuration checksum.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements are true regarding ADOM revisions? (Choose two.)

A.    ADOM revisions can significantly increase the size of the configuration backups.
B.    ADOM revisions can save the current size of the whole ADOM.
C.    ADOM revisions can create System Checkpoints for the FortiManager configuration.
D.    ADOM revisions can save the current state of all policy packages and objects for an ADOM.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are true regarding schedule backup of FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    Backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
B.    Does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
C.    Supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.
D.    Can be configured from the CLI and GUI.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 5
When installation is performed from the FortiManager, what is the recovery logic used between FortiManager and FortiGate for an FGFM tunnel?

A.    After 15 minutes, FortiGate will unset all CLI commands that were part of the installation that caused the tunnel to go down.
B.    FortiManager will revert and install a previous configuration revision on the managed FortiGate.
C.    FortiGate will reject the CLI commands that will cause the tunnel to go down.
D.    FortiManager will not push the CLI commands as a part of the installation that will cause the tunnel to go down.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
An administrator would like to create an SD-WAN default static route for a newly created SD-WAN using the FortiManager GUI. Both port1 and port2 are part of the SD-WAN member interfaces. Which interface must the administrator select in the static route device drop-down list?

A.    port2
B.    virtual-wan-link
C.    port1
D.    auto-discovery

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
What does a policy package status of Modified indicate?

A.    FortiManager is unable to determine the policy package status.
B.    The policy package was never imported after a device was registered on FortiManager.
C.    Policy configuration has been changed on a managed device and changes have not yet been imported into FortiManager.
D.    Policy package configuration has been changed on FortiManager and changes have not yet been installed on the managed device.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Policy Check feature on FortiManager?

A.    To find and provide recommendation to combine multiple separate policy packages into one common policy package.
B.    To find and merge duplicate policies in the policy package.
C.    To find and provide recommendation for optimizing policies in a policy package.
D.    To find and delete disabled firewall policies in the policy package.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator is unable to log in to FortiManager. Which one of the following troubleshooting step should you take to resolve the issue?

A.    Make sure FortiManager Access is enabled in the administrator profile.
B.    Make sure Offline Mode is disabled.
C.    Make sure the administrator IP address is part of the trusted hosts.
D.    Make sure ADOMs are enabled and the administrator has access to the Global ADOM.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to delete an address object that is currently referenced in a firewall policy. Which one of the following statements is true?

A.    FortiManager will not allow the administrator to delete a referenced address object.
B.    FortiManager will disable the status of the referenced firewall policy.
C.    FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with the none address object in the referenced firewall policy.
D.    FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with all address object in the referenced firewall policy.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
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NEW QUESTION 1
Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompressed feature of FortiWeb?

A.    In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file.
B.    In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file.
C.    In the case of compression being done on the web server, to inspect the content of the compressed file.
D.    In the case of the file being a .MP4 video file.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
What is one of the key benefits of the FortiGuard IP Reputation feature?

A.    FortiGuard maintains a list of public IPs with a bad reputation for participating in attacks.
B.    It is updated once per year.
C.    Provides a Document of IP addresses that are suspect, so that administrators can manually update their blacklists.
D.    It maintains a list of private IP addresses.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
In Reverse Proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle traffic that does not match any defined policies?

A.    Non-matching traffic is allowed.
B.    non-Matching traffic is held in buffer.
C.    Non-matching traffic is denied.
D.    Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A.    ADOMs do not have virtual networking.
B.    ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C.    ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do.
D.    Allows you to have one administrator for multiple tenants.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have logged in. When a start page rule detects the invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)

A.    Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error.
B.    Allow the page access, but log the violation.
C.    Automatically redirect the client to the login page.
D.    Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page.
E.    Prompt the client to authenticate.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 6
When integrating FortiWeb and FortiAnalyzer, why is the selection for FortiWeb Version critical? (Choose two.)

A.    Defines Log file format.
B.    Defines communication protocol.
C.    Defines Database Schema.
D.    Defines Log storage location.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 7
Which operation mode does not require additional configuration in order to allow FTP traffic to your web server?

A.    Offline Protection
B.    Transparent Inspection
C.    True Transparent Proxy
D.    Reverse Proxy

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which implementation is best suited for a deployment that must meet compliance criteria?

A.    SSL Inspection with FortiWeb in Transparency mode.
B.    SSL Offloading with FortiWeb in Reverse Proxy mode.
C.    SSL Inspection with FrotiWeb in Reverse Proxy mode.
D.    SSL Offloading with FortiWeb in Transparency mode.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?

A.    Automatic backup and recovery
B.    High Availability
C.    HTTP/HTML Form Authentication
D.    SSL Inspection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
What benefit does Auto Learning provide?

A.    Automatically identifies and blocks suspicious IPs.
B.    FortiWeb scans all traffic without taking action and makes recommendations on rules.
C.    Automatically builds rules sets.
D.    Automatically blocks all detected threats.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
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NEW QUESTION 1
You want to manage a FortiCloud service. The FortiGate shows up in your list devices on the FortiCloud web site, but all management functions are either missing or grayed out. Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    The managed FortiGate is running a version of FortiOS that is either too new or too old for FortiCloud.
B.    The managed FortiGate requires that a FortiCloud management license be purchased and applied.
C.    You must manually configure system control management on the FortiGate CLI and set the management type to FortiGuard.
D.    The management tunnel mode on the managed FortiGate must be changed to normal.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You are asked to add a FortiDDoS to the network to combat detected slow connection attacks such as Slowloris. Which prevention mode on FortiDDoS will protect you against this specific type of attack?

A.    aggressive aging mode
B.    rate limiting mode
C.    blocking mode
D.    asymmetric mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
An old router has been replaced by a FortiWAN device. The routers management IP address and now the network administrator want to remove the old router from the FortiSIEM configuration. Which two statements are true about this operation? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiSIEM will discover a new device for the FortiWAN with the same IP.
B.    The old router will be completely deleted from FortiSIEM’s CMDB.
C.    FortiSIEM needs a special syslog for FortiWAN.
D.    FortiSEIM will move the old router device into the Decommission folder.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a customer experiencing problem with a legacy L3/L4 firewall device and IPv6 SIP VoIP traffic. The device is dropping SIP packets, consequently, it process SIP voice calls. Which solution would solve the customer’s problem?

A.    Deploy a FortiVoice and enable IPv6 SIP.
B.    Replace their legacy device with a FortiGate and configure it to extract information from the body of the IPv6 packet.
C.    Deploy a FotiVoice and enable an IPv6 SIP session helper.
D.    Replace their legacy device with a FortiGate and deploy a FortiVoice to extract information from the body of the IPv6 SIP packet.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
A company has just deployed a new FortiMail in gateway mode. The administrator is asked to strengthen e-mail protection by applying the policies shown below:
– E-mails can only be accepted if a valid e-mail account exists.
– Only authenticated users can send e-mails out.
Which two actions will satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure recipient address verification.
B.    Configure inbound recipient policies.
C.    Configure outbound recipient policies.
D.    Configure access control rules.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 6
You must create a high availability deployment with two FortiWebs in Amazon Services (AWS), each on different Availability Zones (AZ) from the same region. At the same time, each FortiWeb should be able to deliver content from the web server of both of the AZs. Which deployment would satisfy this requirement?

A.    Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Router 53 to load balance for the internal Web servers.
B.    Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for the internal Web servers.
C.    Use AWS Router 53 to load balance for FortiWebs in standalone mode and use AWS Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) peering to load balance for the internal Web servers.
D.    Use AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for both FortiWebs in standalone mode and put the internal Web servers in an ELB sandwich.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
You are administrating the FortiGate 5000 and FortiGate 7000 series products. You want to access the HTTPS GU of the blade located in logical slot of the secondary chassis in a high-availability cluster. Which URL will accomplish this task?

A.    https//192.168.1.99:44302
B.    https//192.168.1.99:44313
C.    https//192.168.1.99:44322
D.    https//192.168.1.99:44323

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
An organization has one central site and three remote sites. A FortiSIEM has been drafted on the central site and now all devices across the remote sites need to be monitored by the FortiSIEM. Which action would reduce the WAN usage by the monitoring system?

A.    Deploy a single Supervisor on the central site and enable WAN optimize on the WAN gateways.
B.    Install Local Collector on remote sites.
C.    Disable monitoring on the remote sites during the day.
D.    Install a Supervisor and a Collector for each remote site.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
A customer wants to enable SYN Rood mitigation in a FortiDDoS device. The FortiDDoS must reply with one SYN/ACK packet per SYN packet from a new source IP address. Which SYN flood mitigation mode must the customer use?

A.    SYN cookie
B.    SYN/ACK cookie
C.    ACK cookie
D.    SYN retransmission

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Your client wants to use a central RADIUS server for management authentication when connecting to the FortiGate GUI and provide different levels of access for different types of employees. Which three actions required providing the requested functionality? (Choose three.)

A.    Enable radius-vdom-override in the CLI.
B.    Create a wildcard administrator on the FortiGate.
C.    Enable occprofile-override in the CLI.
D.    Set the RADIUS authencation type to MS-CHAPv2.
E.    Create multiple administrator profiles with matching RADIUS VSAs.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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