Quantcast
Channel: PassLeader Updated Free VCE Dumps and All Valid PDF Braindump
Viewing all 1906 articles
Browse latest View live

[24/April/2019 Updated] PassLeader Real 268q 640-875 Exam VCE Dumps Help You Passing Exam Easily

$
0
0

New Updated 640-875 Exam Questions from PassLeader 640-875 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 640-875 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/640-875.html (268 Q&As)

Keywords: 640-875 exam dumps, 640-875 exam questions, 640-875 VCE dumps, 640-875 PDF dumps, 640-875 practice tests, 640-875 study guide, 640-875 braindumps, Building Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Networks, Part 1 (SPNGN1) Exam

P.S. New 640-875 SPNGN1 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpZGpwNTVrRmdFaVU

P.S. New 640-878 SPNGN2 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpU3VHYVJYeUFmQlk

NEW QUESTION 231
Which two components are used when creating an endpoint’s modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address? (Choose two.)

A.    Hexadecimal value of 0xFFFE
B.    48-bit MAC address
C.    64-bit MAC address
D.    Link local suffix
E.    IPv4 address

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 232
An engineer’s supervisor sees manual route summarization as complex and unnecessary. Which two arguments can be made for route summarization? (Choose two.)

A.    It advertises detailed routing tables.
B.    It reduces routing table size.
C.    It reduces the upstream impact of a flapping interface.
D.    It increases security by advertising fake networks.
E.    It utilizes the full CPU performance capacity on the routers.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 233
Which statement about Flex Links is true?

A.    Flex Links are supported only if the PVST protocol is used on the links.
B.    STP is disabled on Flex Links.
C.    Flex Links are supported only if the Cisco proprietary Rapid PVST protocol is used on the links.
D.    At least two backup interfaces are required to configure Flex Links.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 234
How many bits of an 802.1Q header are allocated for a VLAN identifier?

A.    8
B.    12
C.    24
D.    32

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 235
Which field in the Ethernet header is used to forward Ethernet frames?

A.    frame check sequence
B.    source address
C.    EtherType
D.    destination address

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 236
If you attempt to enable 802.1x for an EtherChannel port, what happens?

A.    An error occurs, because 802.1x is not supported on EtherChannel.
B.    The 802.1x authentication is extended to all of the ports in the EtherChannel bundle.
C.    An error occurs, but 802.1x is enabled for the EtherChannel bundle.
D.    All of the ports are removed from the EtherChannel bundle.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 237
An engineer wants to ensure that an interface goes into the error disable state immediately when a violation is detected on port. Which command must be used to accomplish this requirement?

A.    switchport port-security violation disable
B.    switchport port-security violation shutdown
C.    switchport port-security violation restrict
D.    switchport port-security violation protect

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 238
Which statement is true when using VRF?

A.    Overlapping IP addresses can be used without conflict.
B.    Multiple instances of a routing table cannot coexist on the same router.
C.    Routing instances must not contain overlapping address space.
D.    Two interfaces on the same router cannot be configured with the same IP address.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 239
Which routing protocol marks redistributed routes as external?

A.    EIGRP
B.    RIPng
C.    RIPv2
D.    BGP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 240
Which statement regarding the GRE protocol is true?

A.    It uses IP protocol 50.
B.    It provides encryption.
C.    It is the default mode for tunnels.
D.    It can transport unicast traffic only.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 241
Which OSPF router handles distribution between OSPF and another routing protocol such as EIGRP or BGP?

A.    autonomous system border router
B.    area border router
C.    designated router
D.    border gateway router

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 242
Which two features were introduced in ICMP version 6? (Choose two.)

A.    error reporting
B.    neighbor discovery
C.    signaling
D.    round trip estimates
E.    router discovery

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 243
Which two values must you configure when you enable a DHCP server on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.    inside and outside NAT interfaces
B.    client DNS domain name
C.    default gateway
D.    router ID
E.    VLAN assignment

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 244
Which two statement about A records and AAAA records in DNS are true? (Choose two.)

A.    A records can be returned in IPv6 packets only.
B.    AAAA records can be returned in IPv6 packets only.
C.    AAAA records can be returned in either IPv4 packets or IPv6 packets.
D.    A records can be returned in either IPv4 packets or IPv6 packets.
E.    A records and AAAA records can be used interchangeable.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 245
Which two DSL technologies are symmetrical? (Choose two.)

A.    HDSL
B.    SDSL
C.    VDSL
D.    RADSL
E.    ADSL

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 246
Which statement about how data is transmitted in a GPON environment is true?

A.    Nodes provide optical to electrical conversion between the OLT and the ONTs.
B.    Optical splitters are used to separate wavelengths assigned to different ONTs.
C.    Each ONT receives the traffic intended for all ONTs on the same PON.
D.    The OLT sends traffic to specific ONTs based on an assigned timeslot.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 247
Which three layers comprise the SONET transport hierarchy? (Choose three.)

A.    line layer
B.    path layer
C.    section layer
D.    data-link layer
E.    application layer
F.    network layer

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 248
In which DWDM network topology does protected traffic travel only between two hub nodes?

A.    any-to-any ring
B.    hubbeed ring
C.    multihubbed ring
D.    meshed ring

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 249
On a service provider network, which device functions as an aggregation point for CPE devices?

A.    a P router
B.    a CE router
C.    a PE router
D.    a CE switch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 250
A network engineer is asked to protect the PE routers by configuring Control Plane Policing. How does this work?

A.    It encrypts packets before transmitting them across a network.
B.    It prevents network data interception.
C.    It prevents unauthorized access into networking devices.
D.    It prevents and protects the control plane of Cisco IOS routers and switches against reconnaissance and denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 251
Which two statements regarding router ACLs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They can restrict and block unwanted access to Cisco IOS services.
B.    They have no effect on router resources.
C.    They can be defined as standard, extended, or optional access lists.
D.    They can protect the router processor from unnecessary traffic, to maintain performance.
E.    They cannot be used to prevent DoS attacks.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 252
For which two reasons would an engineer configure neighbor authentications? (Choose two.)

A.    The neighbor requires authentication.
B.    Routing update packets are being rejected.
C.    The router could receive false routing information.
D.    To maintain link stability.
E.    Changes to the routing infrastructure are being made.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 253
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct data communications networks on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 254
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the network layers from the left onto their most common function on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 255
You have a switch that is configured to send messages to a syslog server. What should you do to log debugging information to syslog?

A.    Set the logging trap to 0.
B.    Set the logging trap to 7.
C.    Set the logging facility to 16.
D.    Set the logging facility to 61.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 256
Which command provides the highest level of detail about the system diagnostics on a Cisco XE router?

A.    show tech-support
B.    show registry
C.    show running-config
D.    show inventory

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 257
Which CLI command works for Cisco IOS and Cisco IOS XR Software configuration?

A.    boot system
B.    enable
C.    ip subnet-zero
D.    snmp-server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 258
An engineer must collect information about the cards installed in a Cisco routing running Cisco IOS XE Software. Which command can the engineer use to collect this information?

A.    show startup-config
B.    show diag
C.    show version
D.    show running-config

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 259
An engineer must set up a password to be used for privilege exec mode and wants the password to be stored in the most secure method. Which command must the engineer use?

A.    username support password cisco
B.    enable password cisco
C.    username support secret cisco
D.    enable secret cisco

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 260
An engineer wants to display the combined content of the target and running configurations without commiting the changes in a Cisco IOS XR Router. Which command accomplishes this task?

A.    show configuration
B.    show running-config sanitized
C.    show running-config
D.    show configuration merge

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 261
……


Download the newest PassLeader 640-875 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

640-875 PDF dumps & 640-875 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/640-875.html (268 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 640-875 SPNGN1 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpZGpwNTVrRmdFaVU

P.S. New 640-878 SPNGN2 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpU3VHYVJYeUFmQlk


[25/April/2019 Updated] Collection Of PassLeader Free 98-368 Practice Test in PDF Download

$
0
0

New Updated 98-368 Exam Questions from PassLeader 98-368 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 98-368 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/98-368.html (72 Q&As)

Keywords: 98-368 exam dumps, 98-368 exam questions, 98-368 VCE dumps, 98-368 PDF dumps, 98-368 practice tests, 98-368 study guide, 98-368 braindumps, Mobility and Devices Fundamentals Exam

P.S. New 98-368 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpTTMtZFZHa01DUU0

>> New 98-349 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpdnJ1VHZCMDhYNVE

>> New 98-361 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpX3poOXczMlRJd2c

>> New 98-364 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpbkkyeFRXT3FjRUk

>> New 98-365 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpRnlrcGp6WXlCYm8

>> New 98-366 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVVhXZTVKdDJpSnc

>> New 98-367 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpMEY4VG5DSlcyTms

>> New 98-369 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpRS1kMVdkQkQ1QlE

>> New 98-375 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpYzVyRk8xZktHRnc

NEW QUESTION 53
You have a Windows 10 computer that is part of a workgroup. To share the C:\Work folder from the computer and make it available to offline users, you need to use the public share option. (Review the underlined text, if it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    advanced
C.    HomeGroup
D.    basic

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.digitalcitizen.life/how-customize-your-advanced-network-sharing-settings-windows-81

NEW QUESTION 54
You perform a bare metal installation of Microsoft Windows 10 Enterprise on a new computer. The computer has a single 1 TB hard disk that you configure as a single partition. Which file system should you use to format the disk partition?

A.    NTFS
B.    ReFS
C.    FAT32
D.    exFAT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 55
Your sister is taking a video editing class at school. She purchased a 2 TB USB hard drive to store video files. She wants to connect it to her Windows 10 computer at home. Video file will exceed 5 GB in size. You need to prepare the new hard drive by formatting it with the appropriate file system. Which file system should you choose?

A.    FAT
B.    HFS
C.    NTFS
D.    FAT32

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_7-files/what-is-the-maximum-file-size-fat-fat32-ntfs-file/1663db6b-490e-4021-9e36-f7a6976ac0c0

NEW QUESTION 56
Which file system format has been adopted by the computer industry as the standard for optical media?

A.    ExFAT
B.    FAT16
C.    ReFS
D.    UDF

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universal_Disk_Format

NEW QUESTION 57
Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. The company has an Azure AD premium subscription. You need to configure file access and storage to meet the following requirements:
– Users can access files from any location with any managed devices without connecting to the corporate network.
– Users can access local copies of files when they are not connected to the Internet.
– Files will sync automatically when connected to the Internet.
What should you configure?

A.    Work Folders
B.    Offline folders
C.    Company Portal
D.    RemoteApp

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/work-folders/work-folders-overview

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to create an Azure storage account through Azure Storage Services to support an Azure Windows virtual machine (VM). You want to keep subscription costs to a minimum. What type of storage account should you create?

A.    Standard storage performance tier.
B.    Blob cool access tier.
C.    Premium storage performance tier.
D.    Blob hot access tier.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.petri.com/choosing-azure-storage-account-type
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-introduction

NEW QUESTION 59
Computer worms are different from other types of malware or spyware because they propagate only when the infected files are copied. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    masquerade as valid files or utility
C.    are embedded as macros in data files
D.    can self-replicate

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.malwarefox.com/malware-types/#tab-con-6

NEW QUESTION 60
You are setting up your home network. All devices on your home network connect through a wireless access point. To share media files between your computer running Windows 10 and your video game system, you should create a public network. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    an extranet
C.    a VPN connection
D.    a private network

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/245982/WHATS-THE-DIFFERENCE-BETWEEN-PRIVATE-AND-PUBLIC-NETWORKS-IN-WINDOWS/

NEW QUESTION 61
When you copy a file from one NTFS file system partition to a different NTFS partition, what happens to the file permissions of the copied file?

A.    They are the combined permissions of the original file and destination folder.
B.    They inherit the permissions of the destination folder.
C.    They remain the same as the original.
D.    They most restrictive permissions are applied.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/320246/inherited-permissions-are-not-automatically-updated-when-you-move-fold

NEW QUESTION 62
You are personalizing the Start screen on a Windows 10 computer. To create a new group of tiles on the Start Screen, select a tile and press F12. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    access Settings > Personalize > Start
C.    right-click a tile and close Add to new group
D.    drag a tile to the far-right side of the Start screen and drop it

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 63
Which two Windows 10 tools can be used to perform BitLocker encryption? (Choose two.)

A.    Manage-bde
B.    Disk Management
C.    Microsoft Management Console
D.    BitLocker control panel

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-basic-deployment
http://www.ilovefreesoftware.com/12/windows-10/enable-bitlocker-drive-encryption-windows-10.html

NEW QUESTION 64
Hotspot
You are trying to access a file in a folder that is located on a Windows 10 computer. You are accessing the file over the network from a second computer. You have the following permissions:
– NTFS: Full Control
– Share: Read Only
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/72718/how-to-understand-those-confusing-windows-7-fileshare-permissions/

NEW QUESTION 65
Drag and Drop
Match each type of malware to its definition. (To answer, drag the appropriate malware type from the column on the left to the definition on the right. Each malware type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.malwarefox.com/malware-types/#tab-con-6

NEW QUESTION 66
Windows Server Active Directory enables single sign-on without the need for additional services, which simplifies user access to thousands of cloud applications on Windows, Mac, and iOS devices. (Review the underlined text, if it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    Microsoft Account
C.    Active Directory Federation Services
D.    Azure Active Directory

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Active Directory is a comprehensive identity and access management cloud solution that provides a robust set of capabilities to manage users and groups. Azure Active Directory enables single sign-on to simplify user access to thousands of cloud applications from Windows, Mac, Android and iOS devices.
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/active-directory/

NEW QUESTION 67
Your company wants to implement file and document security for domain member clients and registered bring your own device (BYOD) devices. Administrators should be able to apply permissions based on well-defined rules, including the automatic classification of files. Policies need to be distributed through group policy. The solution should include auditing to support forensic analysis. What should you use?

A.    Software Restriction Policies
B.    Active Directory Federated Services
C.    Dynamic Access Control
D.    Azure Rights Management

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/dynamic-access-control-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/dynamic-access-control–scenario-overview

NEW QUESTION 68
The OneDrive service is used to create a private, enterprise-based social network. (Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.)

A.    No change is needed
B.    Skype for Business
C.    Yammer
D.    Azure

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://products.office.com/en-za/yammer/yammer-overview

NEW QUESTION 69
Which Microsoft cloud service can perform virtual video conferences?

A.    Azure
B.    Intune
C.    Skype for Business
D.    OneDrive

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.skype.com/en/business/
https://www.lynda.com/SharePoint-tutorials/Microsoft-Cloud-Services-SharePoint-Online-OneDrive-Skype-Business-Online/618724-2.html

NEW QUESTION 70
You are tracking hardware and software inventory on various devices. You need to identify the requirements to support communication between the devices and the Microsoft Intune administrative console. Which device requirement must be met?

A.    All devices must be domain members.
B.    Windows computers must run Windows 8.1 or later.
C.    Microsoft Intune agent must be installed.
D.    All enrolled devices must be in the same organizational unit (OU).

Answer: C
Explanation:
The devices need the Microsoft Intune client installed. This software is also known as Microsoft Intune agent.

NEW QUESTION 71
……


Download the newest PassLeader 98-368 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

98-368 PDF dumps & 98-368 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/98-368.html (72 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 98-368 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpTTMtZFZHa01DUU0

>> New 98-349 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpdnJ1VHZCMDhYNVE

>> New 98-361 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpX3poOXczMlRJd2c

>> New 98-364 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpbkkyeFRXT3FjRUk

>> New 98-365 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpRnlrcGp6WXlCYm8

>> New 98-366 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVVhXZTVKdDJpSnc

>> New 98-367 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpMEY4VG5DSlcyTms

>> New 98-369 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpRS1kMVdkQkQ1QlE

>> New 98-375 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpYzVyRk8xZktHRnc

[25/April/2019 Updated] First Try Free PassLeader 70-333 Exam Dumps and First Pass 70-333 Exam

$
0
0

New Updated 70-333 Exam Questions from PassLeader 70-333 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 70-333 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-333.html (140 Q&As)

Keywords: 70-333 exam dumps, 70-333 exam questions, 70-333 VCE dumps, 70-333 PDF dumps, 70-333 practice tests, 70-333 study guide, 70-333 braindumps, Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015 Exam

P.S. New 70-333 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWnJySmswWnd4NEU

>> New 70-334 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpckYxaG5xd1h2Q1U

NEW QUESTION 120
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains one central site. The infrastructure contains a Standard Edition server that has the Mediation Server role installed and is located in the central site. You configure a trunk to an IP-PBX which is qualified for integration with Skype for Business. You have 300 users who are enabled for Enterprise Voice. You need to provide public switched telephone network (PSTN) services to the Enterprise Voice users if the IP-PBX fails. What should you do?

A.    Install a Survivable Branch server that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure a new trunk and add the trunk to the existing route.
Add the route to the PSTN usage and add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.
B.    Install a PSTN gateway that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure a new trunk to the new PSTN gateway.
Create a new route and a new PSTN usage.
Add the route to the PSTN usage and add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.
C.    Install an additional IP-PBX that connects directly to the PSTN.
Configure the existing trunk to use both IP-PBXs in resiliency mode.
D.    Install a new trunk to a certified SIP trunk provider.
Add the trunk to the existing PSTN usage.
Add the PSTN usage to the voice policy.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 121
You support a Skype for Business environment. You deploy System Center Operations Manager. You implement Enterprise Voice. Some users use a desktop phone to place and receive public switched telephone network (PSTN) calls with people outside of Skype for Business. Some of these users report intermittent connectivity issues with incoming and outgoing calls. You need to periodically confirm that users are able to place and receive calls with people outside of Skype for Business. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a watcher node and configure it for an extended, non-default synthetic transaction.
B.    In the synthetic transaction, run the Test-CsP2PAV Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
C.    In the synthetic transaction, run the Test-CsPstnPeerToPeerCall Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
D.    Create a watcher node and configure it for a default synthetic transaction.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj204943(v=ocs.15).aspx

NEW QUESTION 122
Litware, Inc. is an international air transportation company that has 700 employees. They use contractors for all back office functions. Litware, Inc. has an on-premises Skype for Business Server 2015 deployment used by all users. The company acquires a new Office 365 tenant and would like to move all non-permanent employees to Exchange Online. You need to ensure that users can access Outlook Voice Access and receive voice mails from callers. Which Skype for Business Management cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-CsSipProxyCustom
B.    New-CsSipDomain
C.    New-CsExUmContact
D.    New-CsVoicemailReroutingConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csexumcontact?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 123
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Server 2015 servers, an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain, and Microsoft Exchange 2013. All client computers have the Skype for Business client and Outlook 2016 installed. You deploy USB-tethered Skype for Business Phone Edition devices for a group of users. Users are able to access all dialing features, calendar, and contacts. Users report that the Call Logs feature is unavailable for them. You need to make Call Logs available to all users. What should you do?

A.    Configure the Exchange Unified Messaging server role to use the Exchange organization.
B.    Add an Exchange Autodiscover SRV record to the company DNS servers.
C.    Configure the Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only PIN authentication.
D.    Configure Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only client certificate authentication.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 124
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that has Enterprise Voice enabled. When a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears a custom message, and then the caller is forwarded to a user named User1. Several months later, User1 leaves the company. You need to ensure that when a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears the custom message and is forwarded to a user named User2. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-CsUnassignedNumber
B.    Set-CsUser
C.    Set-CsVoiceRoute
D.    Set-CsAnnouncement

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg425752.aspx

NEW QUESTION 125
A company has a main office and five branch offices located in different cities. You configure Skype for Business Enterprise Voice for the main office. You deploy a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) at a branch office and connect it to a public switched telephone network (PSTN) by using a T1 trunk line. You configure the SBA voice gateway to use fully qualified domain names (FQDN). You test the branch isolation by disconnecting the wide area network (WAN) form the branch office and make an outbound call. The call was successful. Next, you make an inbound call to the branch office and the call fails. You perform the following troubleshooting steps:
– Trace the IncomingAndOutgoingCalls setting.
– Use Snooper to analyze logs.
– Review the syslog file form the SBA voice gateway.
You discover that messages are sent to the Skype for Business Mediation Server pool, but not received. You reconnect the WAN from the branch office and make an inbound call. The call is successful. You need to identify the configuration error that causes inbound calls to fail. What should you check?

A.    the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options for the branch DHCP server
B.    the route settings for the SBA voice gateway
C.    the status of the DNS services for the branch office domain controller
D.    the DNS settings for the SBA voice gateway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 126
You have deployed Skype for Business Server 2015 in three locations, Boston, New York and Chicago. Users form the Boston location are reporting a delay in the audio stream during conferences and that the audio drops frequently. Users in the other two locations do not report the same issues. You need to recommend a solution to resolve the audio issues for the users in the Boston office. Which three possible recommendations should you include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Call Admission Control (CAC)
B.    user services
C.    Quality of Service (QoS)
D.    a location policy
E.    a conferencing policy

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 127
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization and a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. You need to design a Unified Messaging (UM) solution to meet the following requirements:
– Support a peak concurrency of 500 calls.
– Connect to two Skype for Business Sever 2015 pools.
What is the minimum number of mailbox servers that are required?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    5

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 128
Your company has a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. All users are enabled for Enterprise Voice. All network components support the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP). A client computer named Computer1 runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a wireless network connection and a wired network connection. You need to locate Computer1. Which element should you use to locate Computer1?

A.    the Basic Service Set Identification (BSSID) address of the wireless access point (WAP)
B.    the IP subnet of the wireless network
C.    the LLDP switch port
D.    the MAC addresses of the wired network connection
E.    the LLDP switch chassis ID

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 129
Your company corporate telephony environment is a combination of Skype for Business Server 2015 and traditional Private Branch Exchange (PBX). The company has three sites that are connected by a Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) topology. There are 1,250 users who use Skype for Business Server 2015, and 2,250 users who use the PBX environment. On average, the company has three percent of its users dialing in for conferences and six percent on a public switched telephone network (PSTN) call at any time. The company plans to remove the PBXs and have all users use only Skype for Business Server 2015. You need to generate a usage model based on the existing data usage and real-time communications through all of the PBXs. Which two pieces of information should you collect when you perform usage modeling? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    number of PSTN channels provisioned
B.    number of calls that use G.722
C.    number of intersite calls through PSTN
D.    number of calls that use RTAudio Wideband
E.    number of peer-to-peer (P2P) calls over the MPLS network

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 130
You create a topology that includes Enterprise Voice. You configure the system to play a message when unassigned numbers are dialed. You need to add the voice announcements. Which two file formats can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    WAVE Audio File (WAV)
B.    MP3 Audio File (MP3)
C.    Windows Media Audio File (WMA)
D.    MPEG-2 Audio File (MPA)
E.    MPEG-4 Audio File (M4A)

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://greiginsydney.com/audio-file-formats-for-lync-and-exchange/

NEW QUESTION 131
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. Users report significant delays in presence status updates as well as poor audio quality during normal business hours. Which two network metrics should you examine? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    average round trip
B.    average jitter
C.    average network MOS
D.    packet utilization
E.    average listening MOS

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/manage/health-and-monitoring/summary

NEW QUESTION 132
HotSpot
Your network has a perimeter network and an internal network. A firewall named Firewall1 separates the perimeter network from the Internet. A firewall named Firewall2 separates the internal network form the perimeter network. You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that contains an Edge Server and a reverse proxy server in the perimeter network. You plan to deploy extensible messaging and presence protocol (XMPP) federation. You need to create the firewall rules for the planned deployment. How should you configure each firewall? (To answer, configure the appropriate rules in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/edge-server-deployments/edge-environmental-requirements#PortFirewallPlan

NEW QUESTION 133
Drag and Drop
Trey Research currently leverages Exchange Online to provide voice mail capabilities for their existing IP- PBX. An Exchange Online Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan with type of E.164 Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) is currently in use. Skype for Business Server 2015 is already deployed and integrated with Exchange Online. Users can see presence in Outlook Web App and schedule Skype meetings from Outlook Web App. Trey Research is deploying Skype for Business Server 2015 Enterprise Voice and would like to retain voice mail capabilities in Exchange Online. You need to enable voice mail for Enterprise Voice users. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange the in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 134
You are planning a Skype for Business Server 2015 Edge Server deployment. You have nine public addresses for the planned deployment. You need to recommend an Edge Server deployment that meets the following requirements:
– A different public IP address must be assigned to each Edge service.
– Users must be able to sign in from a Skype for Business mobile client.
– Users must be able to communicate with partners who are enabled for XMPP.
– Remote users must be able to access conferences.
– Remote users must be able to access the Skype for Business Server infrastructure if an Edge Server fails.
What should you recommend?

A.    three Edge Servers that use hardware load balancing
B.    two Edge Servers that use hardware load balancing
C.    three Edge Servers that use DNS load balancing
D.    two Edge Servers that use DNS load balancing

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/network-requirements/load-balancing

NEW QUESTION 135
You support a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment that has Enterprise Voice (EV). The company has opened two new satellite branches and configured one with a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) and the other with a Survivable Branch Server (SBS). Neither branch has a DNS server. A wide area network (WAN) outage occurs and EV stopped working for the branch users. You need to ensure that EV functionality continues in the event of WAN outages. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 55 on the branch site’s DHCP server.
B.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 120 on the branch site’s DHCP server to point to the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the SBA or SBS.
C.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option 60 on the branch site’s DHCP server.
D.    Enable backup Registrar discovery by configuring the SBA or SBS to respond to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) 120 queries.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/lyncserver/lync-server-2013-branch-site-resiliency-requirements

NEW QUESTION 136
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. You deploy the Edge server to the perimeter network. Users cannot connect to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. You need to identify the problem that is preventing the users from connecting to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. Which two utilities should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B.    Network Configuration Viewer
C.    The Debug-CsLisConfiguration cmdlet
D.    Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 137
……


Download the newest PassLeader 70-333 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

70-333 PDF dumps & 70-333 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-333.html (140 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 70-333 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWnJySmswWnd4NEU

>> New 70-334 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpckYxaG5xd1h2Q1U

[25/April/2019 Updated] Free Download PassLeader 70-334 VCE Braindump For Passing Exam Successfully

$
0
0

New Updated 70-334 Exam Questions from PassLeader 70-334 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 70-334 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-334.html (129 Q&As)

Keywords: 70-334 exam dumps, 70-334 exam questions, 70-334 VCE dumps, 70-334 PDF dumps, 70-334 practice tests, 70-334 study guide, 70-334 braindumps, Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015 Exam

P.S. New 70-334 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpckYxaG5xd1h2Q1U

>> New 70-333 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWnJySmswWnd4NEU

NEW QUESTION 117
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Standard deployed with an Edge Server that is connected to the Internet. All users have Skype for Business Mobile installed on their Windows phones. Users report that they receive instant messages only when the Skype for Business Mobile app is active in the foreground. You need to ensure that mobile users are able to receive instant messages at all the times. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Enable Push Notifications and Federation from the Skype for Business Server Management Shell.
B.    Set up hosting provider federation between your organization and the Push Notification Service at Skype for Business Online.
C.    Upgrade the Lync 2010 Mobile add on the Windows mobile devices.
D.    Install the Skype for Business Mobility components on the Edge Server.
E.    Open port 5223/TCP outbound on the company firewall.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-and-configure-mobility#ConfigPush

NEW QUESTION 118
You have a Skype for business Server 2015 environment. You must implement support resources for users of the Skype for Business conferencing feature. You need to ensure that the users can access the help and support resources by clicking a URL from a meeting invitation. What should you do?

A.    From the Skype for Business Control Panel, modify the conferencing policy settings.
B.    Run the following Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet: Set-CsMeetingRoom.
C.    From the Skype for Business Control Panel, modify the meeting configuration settings.
D.    Run the following Skype Management Shell cmdlet: Set-CsConferenceDiscLaimer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/manage/conferencing/conferencing

NEW QUESTION 119
A company deploys Skype for Business Server 2015 and has 65,000 users. The infrastructure includes two paired Front End pools named Pool01 and Pool02. Meeting content is stored on Pool01. The servers that run Pool01 suffer a catastrophic failure. You take the following steps:
– Failover users to Pool2.
– Correct the failure on Pool01.
– Failback the users to Pool01.
You need to immediately restore meeting content for users. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet or cmdlets should you run?

A.    Test-CsDatabase cmdlet, and then Get-CsUserDatabaseState PowerShell cmdlet.
B.    Invoke-CsBackupServiceSync PowerShell cmdlet.
C.    Invoke-CsPoolFailover PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Get-CsDatabaseMirrorState cmdlet, and then Invoke-CSManagementServerFailover PowerShell cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/invoke-csmanagementserverfailover?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 120
Litware, Inc. is an international air transportation company that has 700 employees. They use contractors for all back office functions. Litware, Inc. has an on-premises Skype for Business Server 2015 deployment used by all users. The company acquires a new Office 365 tenant and would like to move all non-permanent employees to Exchange Online. You need to ensure that users can access Outlook Voice Access and receive voice mails from callers. Which Skype for Business Management cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-CsSipProxyCustom
B.    New-CsSipDomain
C.    New-CsExUmContact
D.    New-CsVoicemailReroutingConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csexumcontact?view=skype-ps

NEW QUESTION 121
Drag and Drop
You need to implement the federation capabilities that are required for users in the sales and marketing departments. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the answer area. Each command may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-skype-connectivity

NEW QUESTION 122
HotSpot
You need to recommend the topology for the solution. How many additional instances of each type of component should you deploy? (To answer, select the appropriate number of additional Edge Servers, federation routes, SIP domains, and sites in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 123
Fabrikam, Inc, changes their Access Edge fully qualified domain name (FQDN). This resulted in a broken federation relationship. You need to correct the issue and reduce further administrative overhead. What should you do?

A.    Modify the SRV record_sipfederationtls._tcp.adatum.com to point to the new Fabrikam Access Edge FQDN on port TCP/5061.
B.    Modify the federation configuration to enable Open Federation.
C.    Allow outbound connection on port TCP/5061 from Edge Server to any IP address on the Internet.
D.    Modify the SRV record_sipfederationtls._tcp.wideworldimporters.com to point to the new Fabrikam Access Edge FQDN on port TCP/5061.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 124
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Server 2015 servers, an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain, and Microsoft Exchange 2013. All client computers have the Skype for Business client and Outlook 2016 installed. You deploy USB-tethered Skype for Business Phone Edition devices for a group of users. Users are able to access all dialing features, calendar, and contacts. Users report that the Call Logs feature is unavailable for them. You need to make Call Logs available to all users. What should you do?

A.    Configure the Exchange Unified Messaging server role to use the Exchange organization.
B.    Add an Exchange Autodiscover SRV record to the company DNS servers.
C.    Configure the Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only PIN authentication.
D.    Configure Skype for Business Phone Edition devices to use only client certificate authentication.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 environment. You deploy the Edge server to the perimeter network. Users cannot connect to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. You need to identify the problem that is preventing the users from connecting to Skype for Business by using mobile devices. Which two utilities should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
B.    Network Configuration Viewer
C.    The Debug-CsLisConfiguration cmdlet
D.    Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 126
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that has Enterprise Voice enabled. When a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears a custom message, and then the caller is forwarded to a user named User1. Several months later, User1 leaves the company. You need to ensure that when a caller dials an unassigned number, the caller hears the custom message and is forwarded to a user named User2. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-CsUnassignedNumber
B.    Set-CsUser
C.    Set-CsVoiceRoute
D.    Set-CsAnnouncement

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg425752.aspx

NEW QUESTION 127
A company has a main office and five branch offices located in different cities. You configure Skype for Business Enterprise Voice for the main office. You deploy a Survivable Branch Appliance (SBA) at a branch office and connect it to a public switched telephone network (PSTN) by using a T1 trunk line. You configure the SBA voice gateway to use fully qualified domain names (FQDN). You test the branch isolation by disconnecting the wide area network (WAN) form the branch office and make an outbound call. The call was successful. Next, you make an inbound call to the branch office and the call fails. You perform the following troubleshooting steps:
– Trace the IncomingAndOutgoingCalls setting.
– Use Snooper to analyze logs.
– Review the syslog file form the SBA voice gateway.
You discover that messages are sent to the Skype for Business Mediation Server pool, but not received. You reconnect the WAN from the branch office and make an inbound call. The call is successful. You need to identify the configuration error that causes inbound calls to fail. What should you check?

A.    the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options for the branch DHCP server
B.    the route settings for the SBA voice gateway
C.    the status of the DNS services for the branch office domain controller
D.    the DNS settings for the SBA voice gateway

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 128
You have deployed Skype for Business Server 2015 in three locations, Boston, New York and Chicago. Users form the Boston location are reporting a delay in the audio stream during conferences and that the audio drops frequently. Users in the other two locations do not report the same issues. You need to recommend a solution to resolve the audio issues for the users in the Boston office. Which three possible recommendations should you include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Call Admission Control (CAC)
B.    user services
C.    Quality of Service (QoS)
D.    a location policy
E.    a conferencing policy

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 129
……


Download the newest PassLeader 70-334 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

70-334 PDF dumps & 70-334 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-334.html (129 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 70-334 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpckYxaG5xd1h2Q1U

>> New 70-333 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWnJySmswWnd4NEU

[29/April/2019 Updated] Training PassLeader New 300-210 467q VCE and PDF Dumps To Pass Exam

$
0
0

New Updated 300-210 Exam Questions from PassLeader 300-210 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 300-210 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-210.html (467 Q&As)

Keywords: 300-210 exam dumps, 300-210 exam questions, 300-210 VCE dumps, 300-210 PDF dumps, 300-210 practice tests, 300-210 study guide, 300-210 braindumps, Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) Exam

P.S. New 300-210 SITCS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpTkN0N2xZSHZKY2s

>> New 300-206 SENSS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpflBDRGVtd3JJR2k3ZF9sOTAyOHQ0bW1fdlJsZjFwS2xxZmx1TGVrOEdraTA

>> New 300-208 SISAS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfkFleG9jUGxxS3kwS0VwcllTWmlxdTlBZUd5cnBkaG5DSE5FbU5yOEpYQzQ

>> New 300-209 SIMOS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVTNFVTRPdC0zTnM

NEW QUESTION 1
What is a feature of Cisco Hybrid Email Security?

A.    Cisco Registered Envelope Service.
B.    Layer 4 traffic monitoring.
C.    Application visibility and control.
D.    Roaming user protection.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco AMP for Web security are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It compares unknown files to a local threat repository.
B.    It can perform file analysis by sandboxing suspected malware.
C.    It can block critical files from existing through the web gateway.
D.    it can detect and malware before it passes through the web gateway.
E.    It continues monitoring files after they pass the web gateway.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two Cisco ASA commands show if traffic is being redirected to the Cisco Firepower module? (Choose two.)

A.    show module sfr
B.    show service-policy sfr
C.    show service-policy
D.    show module sfr detail
E.    show service-policy inspect scansafe

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 4
A network engineer is configuring URL Filtering on the Cisco ASA with Firewall services. Which two port requirements on the Firepower Management Center must be validated to allow communication with the cloud service? (Choose two.)

A.    outbound port TCP/443
B.    inbound port TCP/80
C.    inbound port TCP/443
D.    outbound port TCP/80
E.    bidirectional port TCP/443

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 5
Which description of the Cisco ASA Connector in a Cisco CWS solution is true?

A.    enables the ASA to download information from CWS
B.    deploys a VPN connection to the CWS cloud
C.    permits the IP addresses required by CWS in the ASA access policy
D.    securely redirects specified traffic to the CWS cloud for inspection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
What is a purpose of the network analysis policy on a Cisco Firepower NGIPS?

A.    it defines the rules for encrypting traffic
B.    it governs how traffic is preprocessed before inspection
C.    it examines packets for attacks by using intrusion rules
D.    it specifies the outer-header criteria used to process traffic without using advanced inspection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
An engineer must evaluate the security gaps with their current WSA. What additional protection does AMP offer for WSA?

A.    point in time detection
B.    roaming user protection
C.    data loss prevention
D.    restricted bandwidth

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two software can be installed on a Cisco ASA-5585-X appliance, assuming the proper hardware is also installed?

A.    Cisco Firepower Services
B.    Cisco ASAv
C.    Cisco ASA
D.    CiSco Firepower Appliance
E.    Cisco Firepower Management Center

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two field can be used to create a new email alert within the Cisco Firepower Management center under Policies > Actions > Alerts tab? (Choose two.)

A.    Device
B.    Source
C.    Destination
D.    From
E.    Relay Host

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 10
Which description of a correlation policy configuration in the Cisco Firepower Management Center is true?

A.    Correlation policy priorities override whitelist priorities.
B.    The system displays correlation policies that are created on all of the domains in a multidomain deployment.
C.    You cannot add a host profile qualification to a correlation rule that is triggered by a malware event.
D.    Deleting a response group deletes the responses of that group.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
What are two analysis method of file inspection on Network-based Cisco Advanced Malware Protection? (Choose two.)

A.    Spero analysis
B.    Network analysis
C.    User analysis
D.    Dynamic analysis
E.    Intrusion analysis

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 12
In the Predefined URL Category Filtering configuration page on a Cisco WSA, which two actions are valid? (Choose two.)

A.    notification
B.    time-based
C.    quarantine
D.    restrict
E.    block

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
Which statement about decrypting traffic on the Cisco Firepower Appliance is true?

A.    The Decrypt-Resign option cannot be used with a local PKI.
B.    Using the Decrypt-Known Key option requires that you upload the public/private key pair from servers to the appliance.
C.    The Decrypt-Known Key option requires only that the public key be uploaded to the appliance.
D.    The Decrypt-Resign option can be used with a well-known/public PKI.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14
When you view a FireAMP Analysis Overview to mitigate a malware issue, where do you look for information about sites from Which the malware attempted to download additional files?

A.    Startup section
B.    Dropped Files section
C.    Threat Root Cause section
D.    Involved IP Addresses section

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
you are troubleshooting the proxy connections going through a Cisco WSA. Which CLI tool do you use to monitor a log file in real time?

A.    grep
B.    nslookup
C.    dig
D.    tail

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

A.    Configure the datasecurityconfig command.
B.    Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand.
C.    Configure a small log-entry size.
D.    Configure a maximum packet size.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
Which two descriptions of a Cisco Firepower NGIPS deployment that uses an inline Pair Interface in tap mode are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Transit traffic can be features are available.
B.    All the Cisco ASA engine features are available.
C.    Two physical interfaces are bridged inter really.
D.    The deployment is available in transparent mode only.
E.    More than two interfaces can be bridged.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 18
Which SSL decryption policy can be used to protect HTTPS servers from external traffic?

A.    Decrypt Re-sign
B.    Block
C.    Decrypt Known Key
D.    Enable SSL Decryption

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19
……


Download the newest PassLeader 300-210 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

300-210 PDF dumps & 300-210 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-210.html (467 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 300-210 SITCS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpTkN0N2xZSHZKY2s

>> New 300-206 SENSS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpflBDRGVtd3JJR2k3ZF9sOTAyOHQ0bW1fdlJsZjFwS2xxZmx1TGVrOEdraTA

>> New 300-208 SISAS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfkFleG9jUGxxS3kwS0VwcllTWmlxdTlBZUd5cnBkaG5DSE5FbU5yOEpYQzQ

>> New 300-209 SIMOS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVTNFVTRPdC0zTnM

[10/May/2019 Updated] Quality 64q MS-200 Exam Questions Verified By Experts Ensure 100 Percent Pass

$
0
0

New Updated MS-200 Exam Questions from PassLeader MS-200 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader MS-200 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-200.html (64 Q&As)

Keywords: MS-200 exam dumps, MS-200 exam questions, MS-200 VCE dumps, MS-200 PDF dumps, MS-200 practice tests, MS-200 study guide, MS-200 braindumps, Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform Exam

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

NEW QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2019. You need to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared for the deployment. What are two methods to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Use ADSI Edit.
B.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer cmdlet.
C.    Review the Exchange.Setup log.
D.    Run the Get-ADForest cmdlet.
E.    Run the dcdiag.exe command.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/prepare-ad-and-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 2
You are deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 to two data centers. You need to protect all mailbox content against database corruption. The solution must minimize the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO). What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    A recovery database.
B.    A lagged database copy.
C.    PST files.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying two standalone servers. Each server will be in a different site. Both servers will be in the same domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You modify the remote IP address ranges of the default frontend Receive connector.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/connectors/receive-connectors?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains a Mailbox server named EX01. EX01 fails and must be replaced. You plan to recover EX01 to a new server. You deploy Windows Server 2019 to a new server that has identical hardware as EX01. You need to restore EX01 to the new server. What should you do before you restore EX01?

A.    Join EX01 to the domain.
B.    Reset the computer account of EX01.
C.    Create a new computer account for EX01.
D.    Rename the computer account of EX01.
E.    Register a service principal name (SPN).

Answer: B
Explanation:
Before you restore EX01 to the new server you must reset the computer account for EX01 and then join it to the domain.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/recover-exchange-servers?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 6
You manage a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has 3,000 users. Each user has a company-provided mobile device that uses Exchange ActiveSync. You discover that devices running a specific operating system version contain a bug that causes the excessive consumption of resources on the exchange servers. You need to prevent the devices from accessing email until the devices are updated. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-ActiveSyncDeviceAutoblockThreshold
B.    Set-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy
C.    New-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule
D.    Set-CasMailbox

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/devices/new-activesyncdeviceaccessrule?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server named MBX01. You back up MBX01 by using Windows Server Backup. You need to recover a deleted mailbox. The solution must minimize the impact on other mailboxes. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/restore-data-using-recovery-dbs?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a shared mailbox named Inquiries. You need to configure inquiries to meet the following requirements:
– A user named User1 must have full access to the mailbox without having permissions to send email messages.
– A user named User2 must be able to send email messages that appear to come from the mailbox.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has three member servers in each site. You need to prevent users from Site1 from sending email messages larger than 5 MB to the mailboxes in Site2. What should you do?

A.    Modify the properties of the Active Directory site link.
B.    From Site1, create a custom Send connector, and then modify the address space.
C.    From Site2, create a custom Receive connector, and then modify the remote IP address range.
D.    Modify the properties of DAG1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users report today that they cannot access email from their mobile device. They successfully accessed their email from the same device yesterday. You need to identify which mobile device access rule applies to the devices. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Get-MsolDevice
B.    Get-ActiveSyncMailboxPolicy
C.    Get-ActiveSyncDeviceClass
D.    Get-MobileDevice

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
Litware, Inc. is an international manufacturing company that has 3,000 employees. The company has sales, marketing, research, and human resources (HR) departments. The company is subject to regulatory compliance. Litware has a main office in New York and two branch offices in London and Paris. All offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The offices can only communicate with each other by using a point-to-point connection. Each office also connects directly to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Remove-MobileDevice
B.    Clear-MobileDevice
C.    Clear-Content
D.    Remove-ActiveSyncDevice

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A.    Create a recovery database on another exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database.
B.    On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C.    Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D.    On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to implement the required changes to the current exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set up directory synchronization.
B.    Create a remote domain.
C.    Configure an email address policy.
D.    Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E.    Configure an internal relay accepted domain.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a company that has retail stores throughout Europe and North America. Contoso has 5,000 employees worldwide. Contoso has a main office in London. The company has 10 branch offices. In each office, there are 50 managers. There are 100 retail stores in Europe and North America. Each retail store has between five and 20 employees. Contoso has a data center in each office. All the offices connect to each other by using redundant WAN links. Each office has a high-speed connection to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers?

A.    a separate exchange server
B.    a separate mailbox database
C.    an audit policy
D.    a transport agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster recovery requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution.
B.    Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution.
C.    Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each exchange server.
D.    Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name resolution.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to implement a routing solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you do?

A.    In each office, create a scoped send connector.
B.    Create an SMTP site link for each office.
C.    Configure the main office as an Active Directory hub site.
D.    Create 10 accepted domains.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
……


Download the newest PassLeader MS-200 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

MS-200 PDF dumps & MS-200 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-200.html (64 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

[10/May/2019 Updated] PassLeader Actual 60q MS-201 PDF Exam Dumps For Free Download

$
0
0

New Updated MS-201 Exam Questions from PassLeader MS-201 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader MS-201 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-201.html (60 Q&As)

Keywords: MS-201 exam dumps, MS-201 exam questions, MS-201 VCE dumps, MS-201 PDF dumps, MS-201 practice tests, MS-201 study guide, MS-201 braindumps, Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Exam

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

NEW QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes. You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to Exchange Online. You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs. Which licenses should you identify?

A.    Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users.
B.    Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users.
C.    Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users.
D.    An Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/active-directory-whatis

NEW QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online. You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories. Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    RPC
B.    EWS
C.    PowerShell
D.    ECP
E.    MAPI
F.    Autodiscover

Answer: EF
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication

NEW QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and configure Active Directory synchronization. You use a smart host for all communication between the organization and the Internet. The smart host performs email hygiene and alters message headers. You plan to run the Hybrid Configuration wizard to create an Exchange hybrid deployment and change the MX record to point to Exchange Online. You need to decommission the smart host from the organization. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the InternalSmtpServer value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
B.    Modify the Send connector to use DNS delivery.
C.    Modify the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
D.    Create a Receive connector that allows anonymous authentication.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/set-transportconfig?view=exchangeps

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You create a new safe links policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://blog.netwrix.com/2019/01/24/make-the-most-of-exchange-online-advanced-threat-protection/

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several users in the finance department of the company recently accesses unsafe websites by clicking on links in email messages. Users in the marketing department of the company report that they must be able to access all the links embedded in email messages. You need to reduce the likelihood of the finance department users accessing unsafe websites. The solution must affect only the finance department users.
Solution: You modify the content filtering settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/content-filtering-procedures?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You deploy a new mailbox server named EX01. You need to ensure that EX01 can perform content filtering and sender filtering. What should you run first?

A.    Install-UnifiedCompliancePrequisite
B.    Set-transportAgent
C.    Install-AntiSpamAgents.ps1
D.    Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/antispam-on-mailbox-servers?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER. You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync connection. How should you complete the PowerShell script? (To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-and-performance/new-throttlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-and-performance/set-throttlingpolicyassociation?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You are migrating mailboxes from the on-premises organization to Exchange Online. From the Exchange admin center, you create a new migration batch that includes 25 mailboxes, and then select Manual Complete the batch. Later, you must complete the migration of a mailbox named user1@litware.com in the batch as soon as possible. You discover that the status of the migration batch is Syncing, but the status of the move request for user1@litware.com is Synced. You need to complete the migration of the user1@litware.com mailbox to Exchange Online as soon as possible. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/set-moverequest?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create?

A.    a journal rule
B.    a retention policy
C.    a retention tag
D.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains mailbox servers in four Active Directory sites. The organization contains 35,000 user mailboxes. The network bandwidth between the sites is limited. Users frequently travel between the sites. You need to ensure the users download the offline address book (OAB) from a local server. What should you do?

A.    Create an arbitration mailbox in each site and configure shadow copies of the OAB.
B.    Modify the OAB virtual directories on the Exchange servers in each site to use unique URLs.
C.    Place the arbitration mailbox of the OAB in a database that replicates between the sites by using a database availability groups (DAG).
D.    Create a separate OAB and arbitration mailbox in each site.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/offline-address-books/offline-address-books?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office.
B.    Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office.
C.    Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users.
D.    Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned changes. What should you recommend?

A.    Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B.    Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C.    Increase the frequency of the backups.
D.    Modify the public folder permissions.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigation-holds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to recommend a procedure for closing the Brussels office that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    In the main office, deploy an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new server.
B.    Deploy a Microsoft Skype for Business 2019 server to the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office.
C.    Implement a new mailbox database on an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new mailbox database.
D.    Implement a new database availability group (DAG) that contains the server in the Brussels office and a new Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then create a mailbox database copy on the new server in the main office.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/mailbox-servers/manage-mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
https://theitbros.com/move-exchange-mailboxes-to-another-database/

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed.
……

NEW QUESTION 56
You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B.    Office 365 groups
C.    Resource mailboxes
D.    Public folder replicas

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing

NEW QUESTION 58
……


Download the newest PassLeader MS-201 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

MS-201 PDF dumps & MS-201 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-201.html (60 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

[10/May/2019 Updated] All Vaild MS-202 120q Braindump Offered By PassLeader For Free Download

$
0
0

New Updated MS-202 Exam Questions from PassLeader MS-202 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader MS-202 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-202.html (120 Q&As)

Keywords: MS-202 exam dumps, MS-202 exam questions, MS-202 VCE dumps, MS-202 PDF dumps, MS-202 practice tests, MS-202 study guide, MS-202 braindumps, Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Exam

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb

NEW QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You deploy a new Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a Mailbox server in each site. You need to configure the organization to use a single namespace for Autodiscover. What should you do?

A.    Create an SRV record named Autodiscover.
B.    Create a TXT record named Autodiscover.
C.    Run the Set-ClientAccessService cmdlet.
D.    Run the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchnage Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying a database availability group (DAG) that will contain two servers. Each server will be in a different site. Both servers will be in the same domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has two offices. The network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. You need to recommend a plan for the deployment of Microsoft Exchnage Server 2019 servers. The plan must ensure that a copy of each sent email message is always retained in a shadow queue.
Solution: You recommend deploying a standalone server to each site. Each server will be in a different domain.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/transport-high-availability/shadow-redundancy?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. Ten days ago, a user named User1 sent an email message to a user named User2. User2 never received the message. You need to identify whether the message was delivered to User2. What should you run from Exchange Management Shell?

A.    Get-MessageTraceDetail
B.    Search-MessageTrackingReport
C.    Get-MessageTrackingReport
D.    Get-MessageTrace

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/get-messagetrackingreport?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 5
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. The company purchases five portable projectors for its sales department. You need to enable the users in the sales department to reserve the projectors by using their calendar in Exchange. What is the best type of recipient to use to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    a user mailbox
B.    a distribution group
C.    a shared mailbox
D.    a resource mailbox

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You purchase an Exchange Online subscription. You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment that supports the following features:
– Federated sharing of free/busy information.
– Single-sign on (SSO) access to both on-premises and Exchange Online mailboxes.
– Secured access to mailboxes by using Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policies.
– A unified global address list (GAL) that contains all the mailboxes in the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
You plan to run the Microsoft Office 365 Hybrid Configuration wizard. You are evaluating whether to use Exchange Classic Hybrid or Exchange Modern Hybrid. Which requirement can only be met by using the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option?

A.    the federated sharing of free/busy information between organizations
B.    SSO access to both on-premises and Exchange Online mailboxes
C.    a unified GAL list that contains all the mailboxes in the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations
D.    secured access to mailboxes by using Azure AD conditional access policies

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/hybrid-deployment/hybrid-agent

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
Your company named ADatum Corporation has a Microsoft 365 subscription. ADatum acquires a company named Contoso, Ltd. In the subscription, you create a new mailbox for each user at Contoso. You need to provide the Contoso users with a global address list (GAL) that contains only their email addresses. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-lists/create-global-address-list
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/address-lists/address-lists?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You have three Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 servers named MBX01, MBX02, and MBX03 in a database availability group (DAG) named DAG01. You have a single mailbox database named MDB01 that replicates to all the servers. All users report that mailbox searches from Outlook on the web return no results. You discover that the mailbox content index on MBX02 has failed. You need to ensure that all the users can search mailboxes successfully by using Outlook on the web. The solution must resolve the issue as quickly as possible. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/database-availability-groups/update-mailboxdatabasecopy?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You are migrating public folder data to Exchange Online by using a migration batch of the PublicFolder type. You need to identify the sync of each move request in the batch. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Get-PublicFolderMailboxMigrationRequests
B.    Get-MoveRequest
C.    Get-PublicFolderMoveRequest
D.    Get-PublicFolderMigrationRequest

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchange-online?view=exchserver-2019
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/get-publicfoldermoverequest?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You plan to enable journaling for external email messages only. You need to ensure that journal reports are delivered if the journal mailbox is offline. What should you do?

A.    Create a new journal rule.
B.    Run Set-TransportService and extend MessageExpirationTimeout.
C.    Edit the journal rule to include all messages.
D.    Specify an alternative journaling mailbox.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/journaling/configure-journaling

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc. (A)
Litware, Inc. is an international manufacturing company that has 3,000 employees. The company has sales, marketing, research, and human resources (HR) departments. The company is subject to regulatory compliance. Litware has a main office in New York and two branch offices in London and Paris. All offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The offices can only communicate with each other by using a point-to-point connection. Each office also connects directly to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to meet the technical requirements for the mobile device of User2. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Remove-MobileDevice
B.    Clear-MobileDevice
C.    Clear-Content
D.    Remove-ActiveSyncDevice

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 102
You need to restore mailbox access for the main office users as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A.    Create a recovery database on another exchange server, and then restore the database from EX07 to the recovery database.
B.    On a server in DAG15, create a copy of the mailbox databases hosted on EX07.
C.    Copy the database files from EX07, and then mount the database on a server in DAG15.
D.    On a new server, run setup.exe /Mode:RecoverServer from the Exchange Server 2019 installation media and then restore a backup of the database.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
You need to implement the required changes to the current exchange organization for the Fabrikam partnership. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Set up directory synchronization.
B.    Create a remote domain.
C.    Configure an email address policy.
D.    Configure an external relay accepted domain.
E.    Configure an internal relay accepted domain.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/accepted-domains/accepted-domains?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 104
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd. (A)
Contoso, Ltd. is a company that has retail stores throughout Europe and North America. Contoso has 5,000 employees worldwide. Contoso has a main office in London. The company has 10 branch offices. In each office, there are 50 managers. There are 100 retail stores in Europe and North America. Each retail store has between five and 20 employees. Contoso has a data center in each office. All the offices connect to each other by using redundant WAN links. Each office has a high-speed connection to the Internet.
……

NEW QUESTION 107
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers?

A.    a separate exchange server
B.    a separate mailbox database
C.    an audit policy
D.    a transport agent

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 108
You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster recovery requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution.
B.    Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution.
C.    Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each exchange server.
D.    Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name resolution.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 109
You need to implement a routing solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you do?

A.    In each office, create a scoped send connector.
B.    Create an SMTP site link for each office.
C.    Configure the main office as an Active Directory hub site.
D.    Create 10 accepted domains.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 110
……

Case Study 3 – Litware, Inc. (B)
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office.
……

NEW QUESTION 112
You need to resolve the issue for the transport department users. What is the best way to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    Move the public folder mailbox that contains TransportPF to a server in the main office.
B.    Move TransportPF to a public folder mailbox hosted in the main office.
C.    Modify the default public folder mailbox for all the transport department users.
D.    Instruct the transport department users to add TransportPF to their Favorites list in Outlook.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 113
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned changes. What should you recommend?

A.    Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B.    Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C.    Increase the frequency of the backups.
D.    Modify the public folder permissions.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigation-holds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

NEW QUESTION 114
You need to recommend a procedure for closing the Brussels office that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    In the main office, deploy an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new server.
B.    Deploy a Microsoft Skype for Business 2019 server to the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office.
C.    Implement a new mailbox database on an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new mailbox database.
D.    Implement a new database availability group (DAG) that contains the server in the Brussels office and a new Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then create a mailbox database copy on the new server in the main office.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/mailbox-servers/manage-mailbox-moves?view=exchserver-2019
https://theitbros.com/move-exchange-mailboxes-to-another-database/

NEW QUESTION 115
……

Case Study 4 – Contoso, Ltd. (B)
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed.
……

NEW QUESTION 118
You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B.    Office 365 groups
C.    Resource mailboxes
D.    Public folder replicas

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 119
You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D.    From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/dynamic-delivery-and-previewing

NEW QUESTION 120
……


Download the newest PassLeader MS-202 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

MS-202 PDF dumps & MS-202 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/ms-202.html (120 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New MS-202 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1MvUZHTp9cB4bMWoc0PZxL0OWKBP3S1pt

P.S. New MS-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1-YAsfx8O9QIsFX-K7_NXHZ-jLvxSueIg

P.S. New MS-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XhvKxigdk0mXLGHRpBdYoYnv-PuqI5Yb


[10/May/2019 Updated] PassLeader New 400-151 Braindump With VCE Files For Free Download

$
0
0

New Updated 400-151 Exam Questions from PassLeader 400-151 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 400-151 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/400-151.html (144 Q&As~2019 Version)

Keywords: 400-151 exam dumps, 400-151 exam questions, 400-151 VCE dumps, 400-151 PDF dumps, 400-151 practice tests, 400-151 study guide, 400-151 braindumps, CCIE Data Center Written Exam, v2.1

P.S. New CCIE Data Center 400-151 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVmo1Q01pZEhTUG8

>> New CCIE Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8

>> New CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVkYtTGdtRWFodXM

>> New CCIE Collaboration 400-051 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpNnliRG04bG9GbEk

>> New CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWTFGcGFzN0JuYkE

>> New CCIE Security 400-251 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpd3JLalNVS0VWbms

NEW QUESTION 1
While using HSRP, if you see the active state of the devices constantly changing, which parameter may need to be adjusted?

A.    delay
B.    hold time
C.    priority
D.    standby group

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two prerequisites for BFD are true? (Choose two.)

A.    For Layer 3 port channels used by BFD, you must enable LACP on the port channel.
B.    Install NETWORK_SERVICE_PKG license.
C.    Disable the IP packet verification check for identical IP source and destination addresses.
D.    Enabled ICMP redirect messages on BFD-enabled interfaces.
E.    For Layer 2 port channels used by BFD, you must disable LACP on the port channel.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 3
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connectivity?

A.    Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch.
B.    Endpoints must be in different bridge domains.
C.    Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups.
D.    Endpoints must be in different VRFs.
E.    Endpoint must connect to different leaf switches.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 4
For which two multicast distribution modes is RP configuration required? (Choose two.)

A.    ASM
B.    BIDIR
C.    UDIR
D.    SSM
E.    RPF routes for multicast

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 5
If the FCoE negotiation fails, what can you configure the switch to do on that interface?

A.    force-enable FCoE
B.    reset-enable FCoE
C.    active-enable FCoE
D.    passive-enable FCoE

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which docker orchestration tool replaced fig?

A.    Docker Swarm
B.    Docker List
C.    Docker Hub
D.    Docker Compose
E.    Docker Link

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two options are different ways to extend the Layer 2 domain beyond the ACI fabric? (Choose two.)

A.    Extend the bridge domain out of the ACI fabric.
B.    Extend VTEP out the ACI fabric.
C.    Configure fabric access policies on the ACI fabric to match the port settings at the remote end.
D.    Extend the EPG out of the ACI fabric.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8
Which three editing options UCS Director workflow are valid? (Choose three.)

A.    Rename a workflow.
B.    Edit tasks in the workflow.
C.    Change an input from mandatory to optional.
D.    Reorder inputs.
E.    Delete inputs.

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two characteristics of an IoT network are true? (Choose two.)

A.    IoT networks must be designed for low-powered devices.
B.    The transmission rate in an IoT network is consistent.
C.    IoT networks are 100% reliable.
D.    IoT networks use IS-IS for routing.
E.    IoT networks are bandwidth constrained.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statistic classes can be used to define a threshold policy for a compute resource? (Choose two.)

A.    Memory failures
B.    Ethernet port CRC stats
C.    Processor lock ups
D.    Ethernet port stats
E.    Processor runtime

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which three pre-built templates in cloud center are available in core profiles? (Choose three.)

A.    Hadoop jar Runner
B.    Java Web
C.    Parallel
D.    Cluster
E.    PHP Web App
F.    Batch

Answer: CDF

NEW QUESTION 12
Where are the logs that identify issues found in the APIC graphical user interface?

A.    under System -> Faults
B.    under Admin -> External Data Collectors -> Syslog
C.    under Tenant -> Faults
D.    under Operations -> Visibility & Troubleshooting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the network programmability term on the left to the correct description on the right.

Answer:
A-2
B-3
C-5
D-1
E-4

NEW QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the correct functional components from left to its description on right.

Answer:
A-1
B-3
C-2

NEW QUESTION 15
Which state is the optimal health state for an APIC cluster?

A.    In service
B.    Fully synced
C.    In sync
D.    Fully fit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which three advantages of connecting on-premises private cloud-to-cloud VPN versus a direct connection are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Time to provision
B.    QoS
C.    Flexibility
D.    Latency
E.    Cost
F.    Throughput

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 17
Which statement about network ports in a UCS fabric interconnect is true?

A.    Network ports do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in a pin group.
B.    Network ports do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
C.    Network ports have BPDU Guard enabled.
D.    Network ports trunk all VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
E.    Network ports are placed into a port channel automatically.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
……


Download the newest PassLeader 400-151 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

400-151 PDF dumps & 400-151 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/400-151.html (144 Q&As~2019 Version) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New CCIE Data Center 400-151 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVmo1Q01pZEhTUG8

>> New CCIE Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8

>> New CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVkYtTGdtRWFodXM

>> New CCIE Collaboration 400-051 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpNnliRG04bG9GbEk

>> New CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWTFGcGFzN0JuYkE

>> New CCIE Security 400-251 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpd3JLalNVS0VWbms

[10/May/2019 Updated] Testing PassLeader 400-251 Exam Questions and Answers To 100% Pass 400-251 Exam

$
0
0

New Updated 400-251 Exam Questions from PassLeader 400-251 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 400-251 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/400-251.html (167 Q&As~2019 Version)

Keywords: 400-251 exam dumps, 400-251 exam questions, 400-251 VCE dumps, 400-251 PDF dumps, 400-251 practice tests, 400-251 study guide, 400-251 braindumps, CCIE Security Exam

P.S. New CCIE Security 400-251 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpd3JLalNVS0VWbms

>> New CCIE Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8

>> New CCIE Collaboration 400-051 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpNnliRG04bG9GbEk

>> New CCIE Data Center 400-151 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVmo1Q01pZEhTUG8

>> New CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVkYtTGdtRWFodXM

>> New CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWTFGcGFzN0JuYkE

NEW QUESTION 1
What is the best description of a docker file?

A.    Text document used to build an image.
B.    Message Daemon files.
C.    Software used to manage containers.
D.    Repository for docker images.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is part of DevOps virtuous Cycle?

A.    Lower Quality
B.    Increased Latency
C.    Slower Releases
D.    Improved Scalability

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
How would you best describe Jenkins?

A.    An orchestration tool.
B.    Continuous integration and delivery application.
C.    Operations in a client/server model.
D.    Web-based repository hosting service.
E.    A REST client.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What are the two different modes in which Private AMP cloud can be deployed? (Choose two.)

A.    Hybrid Mode
B.    Internal Mode
C.    Air Gap Mode
D.    External Mode
E.    Cloud-Proxy Mode
F.    Public Mode

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two statements about 802.1x components are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The certificates that are used in the client-server authentication process are stored on the access switch.
B.    The access layer switch is the policy enforcement point.
C.    The RADIUS server is the policy enforcement point.
D.    The RADIUS server is the policy information point.
E.    An LDAP server can serve as the policy enforcement point.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 6
Which statement describes a hybrid SDN framework?

A.    The data plane is pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller.
B.    The control plane is pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller.
C.    The control plane functions are split between a SDN controller and the networking element.
D.    The control plane and data plane are pulled from the networking element and put in a SDN controller and SDN agent.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which three messages are part of the SSL protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    Change CipherSpec
B.    Alert
C.    Record
D.    Message Authenication
E.    CipherSpec
F.    Handshake

Answer: ABF

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics correctly identify attributes of LPWA technologies? (Choose two.)

A.    Supports high-throughput bandwidth requirements.
B.    Provides better Quality of Service features than NB-loT.
C.    Supports over-the-air distances of over 30km.
D.    Capable of using unlicensed technologies such as SigFox.
E.    End-device with battery life lasting over 10 years.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9
Which statement about Local Web Authentication is true?

A.    It supports Change of Authorization and VLAN enforcement.
B.    It can use VLANs and ACLs to enforce authorization.
C.    The network device handles guests authentication.
D.    The ISE servers web pages.
E.    It supports posture and profilling services.
F.    The web portal can be customized locally or managed by the ISE.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
For which of the four portals is the SAML Single Sign-On on ISE supported? (Choose four.)

A.    Wireless Client portal.
B.    Certificate Provisioning portal.
C.    Guest portal (sponsored and self registered).
D.    My Device portal.
E.    Employee portal.
F.    Sponsor portal.
G.    Contractor portal.
H.    BYOD portal.

Answer: BCDF

NEW QUESTION 11
Which entity is responsible for the StealthWatch Management Center to interact with ISE?

A.    FMC
B.    DNA
C.    PxGrid
D.    ASA
E.    Threat Grid
F.    NGIPS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which description of the AES encryption algorithm is ture?

A.    Reapplying the same encryption key three times makes it less vulnerable than 3DES.
B.    Theoretically 3DES is more secure than AES.
C.    It uses the block of 64 bits.
D.    It provides only data integrity.
E.    It does not use the substitution and permutation principle.
F.    It uses three encryption keys of lengths 128, 192 and 256.

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following is true regaring failover link when ASAs are configured in the failover mode?

A.    It is not recommended to use secure communication over failover link when ASA terminating the VPN tunnel.
B.    Only the configuration replication sent across the link can be secured using a failover key.
C.    The information sent over the failover link can only be in clear text.
D.    The information sent over the failover link can be sent in clear text or it could be secured communication using a failover key.
E.    Failover key is not required for the secure communication over the failover link.
F.    The information sent over the failover link can be only be sent as a secured communication.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which statement about VRF-Lite implementation in a service provider network is ture?

A.    It requires multiple links between CE and PE for each VPN connection to enable privacy.
B.    It uses output interfaces to differentiate routes for different VPNs in the CE device.
C.    It can only support one VRF instance per CE device.
D.    It can support multiple VPNs at a CE device with overlapping address space.
E.    It disable the sharing of one CE device among multiple customers.
F.    It can have multiple VRF instances associated with a single interface on a CE device.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
What will be used by WSA to apply the polices when identification is based on ISE?

A.    SGT
B.    proprietary protocol over TCP/8302
C.    SXP
D.    RADIUS
E.    EAP
F.    RPC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
Which two evasion techniques are used by attackers? (Choose two.)

A.    Telnet to launch device administrative session.
B.    Resource exhaustion.
C.    Port access using Dot1X.
D.    ACL implementation to drop unwanted traffic.
E.    Encryption
F.    NAT translations on routers and switches.
G.    URL filtering to block malicious sites.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 17
Which three NETCONF datastores are valid? (Choose three.)

A.    candidate
B.    running
C.    startup
D.    state
E.    capabilities
F.    notification

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Drag LDAP queries used by ESA to query LDAP server on the left to its functionality on the right.

Answer:
A-5
B-1
C-4
D-2
E-3

NEW QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
Drag the PCI-DSS requirements on the left to its security controls on the right.

Answer:
A-5
B-1
C-2
D-3
E-4

NEW QUESTION 20
When an organization is choosing a cloud computing model to adopt, many considerations are studied to determine the most suitable model. To which model is cloud interdependency mainly attributed?

A.    Hybrid cloud
B.    Public cloud
C.    Community cloud
D.    Private cloud

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21
……


Download the newest PassLeader 400-251 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

400-251 PDF dumps & 400-251 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/400-251.html (167 Q&As~2019 Version) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New CCIE Security 400-251 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpd3JLalNVS0VWbms

>> New CCIE Routing and Switching 400-101 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8

>> New CCIE Collaboration 400-051 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpNnliRG04bG9GbEk

>> New CCIE Data Center 400-151 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVmo1Q01pZEhTUG8

>> New CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpVkYtTGdtRWFodXM

>> New CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpWTFGcGFzN0JuYkE

[11/May/2019 Updated] Free 250q AZ-103 Exam Questions From PassLeader For Free Download

$
0
0

New Updated AZ-103 Exam Questions from PassLeader AZ-103 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader AZ-103 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/az-103.html (250 Q&As)

Keywords: AZ-103 exam dumps, AZ-103 exam questions, AZ-103 VCE dumps, AZ-103 PDF dumps, AZ-103 practice tests, AZ-103 study guide, AZ-103 braindumps, Microsoft Azure Administrator Exam

P.S. New AZ-103 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1pcJSvWksUYfrmRT5Hy9xnh0iGBvW_sfq

P.S. New AZ-102 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1HceOeaJ6TUh6408k3UU7gZb7aXGzzGb

NEW QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You regularly create and delete virtual machines. You need to identify unused disks that can be deleted. What should you do?

A.    From Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer, view the Account Management properties.
B.    From the Azure portal, configure the Advisor recommendations.
C.    From Cloudyn, open the Optimizer tab and create a report.
D.    From Cloudyn, create a Cost Management report.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Unattached Disks report lists storage that is not attached to any active VM. To open the report, click in the Optimizer tab. Select Inefficiencies and the click Unattached Disks.
https://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/0e4b3c28-a7f3-416b-84b7-3753f534e1b9/faq-how-to-save-money-with-cloudyn-8211-10-steps?forum=Cloudyn
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management/overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
B.    Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
C.    Create an Azure policy.
D.    Create an automation account.
E.    Upload a configuration script.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Virtual Machine Scale Sets can be used with the Azure Desired State Configuration (DSC) extension handler. Virtual machine scale sets provide a way to deploy and manage large numbers of virtual machines, and can elastically scale in and out in response to load. DSC is used to configure the VMs as they come online so they are running the production software.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/virtual-machine-scale-sets-dsc

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company has an Azure subscription named Subscription1. The company also has two on-premises servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a DNS server that has a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains 1,000 DNS records. You manage Server1 and Subscription1 from Server2. Server2 has the following tools installed:
– The DNS Manager console
– Azure PowerShell
– Azure CLI 2.0
You need to move the adatum.com zone to Subscription1. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use?

A.    The Azure PowerShell
B.    The Azure CLI
C.    The Azure Portal
D.    The DNS Manager Console

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure DNS supports importing and exporting zone files by using the Azure command-line interface (CLI). Zone file import is not currently supported via Azure PowerShell or the Azure portal.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-import-export

NEW QUESTION 4
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contosocloud.onmicrosoft.com. Your company has a public DNS zone for contoso.com. You add contoso.com as a custom domain name to Azure AD. You need to ensure that Azure can verify the domain name. Which type of DNS record should you create?

A.    RRSIG
B.    PTR
C.    DNSKEY
D.    TXT

Answer: D
Explanation:
Create the TXT record. App Services uses this record only at configuration time to verify that you own the custom domain. You can delete this TXT record after your custom domain is validated and configured in App Service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-web-sites-custom-domain

NEW QUESTION 5
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json. You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance. You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/redeploy-to-new-node-windows

NEW QUESTION 6
You have a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains an Azure Storage account named storageaccount1 and a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Storageaccount1 contains the disk files for VM1. You apply a ReadOnly lock to RG1. What can you do from the Azure portal?

A.    Generate an automation script for RG1.
B.    View the keys of storageaccount1.
C.    Upload a blob to storageaccount1.
D.    Start VM1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
ReadOnly means authorized users can read a resource, but they can’t delete or update the resource. Applying this lock is similar to restricting all authorized users to the permissions granted by the Reader role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-lock-resources

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource groups. Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription. You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You assign a built-in policy definition to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines. Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance. You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center. What should you do?

A.    Add an extension to the virtual machines.
B.    Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine.
C.    Assign tags to the virtual machines.
D.    Configure locks for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    Azure SQL Database
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    A Virtual Machine
D.    Azure Blob Storage

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 10
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1. You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning. What is a possible cause of the Warning status?

A.    VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed.
B.    VM1 has an unmanaged disk.
C.    VM1 is stopped.
D.    A Recovery Services vault is unavailable.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

NEW QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains three virtual networks named VNet1, VNet2, VNet3. VNet2 contains a virtual appliance named VM2 that operates as a router. You are configuring the virtual networks in a hub and spoke topology that uses VNet2 as the hub network. You plan to configure peering between VNet1 and VNet2 and between VNet2 and VNet3. You need to provide connectivity between VNet1 and VNet3 through VNet2. Which two configurations should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On the peering connections, allow forwarded traffic.
B.    On the peering connections, allow gateway transit.
C.    Create route tables and assign the table to subnets.
D.    Create a route filter.
E.    On the peering connections, use remote gateways.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
Allow gateway transit: Check this box if you have a virtual network gateway attached to this virtual network and want to allow traffic from the peered virtual network to flow through the gateway. The peered virtual network must have the Use remote gateways checkbox checked when setting up the peering from the other virtual network to this virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

NEW QUESTION 12
You have an Azure web app named Appl. App1 runs in an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 is associated to the Free pricing tier. You discover that App1 stops each day after running continuously for 60 minutes. You need to ensure that App1 can run continuously for the entire day.
Solution: You change the pricing tier of Plan1 to Basic.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Free Tier provides 60 CPU minutes/day. This explains why App1 is stops. The Basic tier has no such cap.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/windows/

NEW QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
DevTest Labs User role only lets you connect, start, restart, and shutdown virtual machines in your Azure DevTest Labs. You would need the Logic App Contributor role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 14
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid. You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the executions of the app. What should you configure when you create the function app?

A.    The Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan.
B.    The Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan.
C.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier.
D.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Functions runs in two different modes: Consumption plan and Azure App Service plan. The Consumption plan automatically allocates compute power when your code is running. Your app is scaled out when needed to handle load, and scaled down when code is not running.
Incorrect:
Not B: When you run in an App Service plan, you must manage the scaling of your function app.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-first-azure-function

NEW QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
– a virtual network named VNet1
– a replication policy named ReplPolicy1
– a Recovery Services vault named Vault1
– an Azure Storage account named Storage1
You have an Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. You need to migrate VM1 to VNet1 by using Azure Site Recovery. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Deploy an EC2 virtual machine as a configuration server Prepare source include:
1. Use an EC2 instance that’s running Windows Server 2012 R2 to create a configuration server and register it with your recovery vault.
2. Configure the proxy on the EC2 instance VM you’re using as the configuration server so that it can access the service URLs.
Step 2: Install Azure Site Recovery Unified Setup. Download Microsoft Azure Site Recovery Unified Setup. You can download it to your local machine and then copy it to the VM you’re using as the configuration server.
Step 3: Enable replication for VM1. Enable replication for each VM that you want to migrate. When replication is enabled, Site Recovery automatically installs the Mobility service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-aws-azure

NEW QUESTION 16
HotSpot
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that connects to your on-premises network by using a site-to-site VPN. VNet1 contains one subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 is associated to a network security group (NSG) named NSG1. Subnet1 contains a basic internal load balancer named ILB1. ILB1 has three Azure virtual machines in the backend pool. You need to collect data about the IP addresses that connects to ILB1. You must be able to run interactive queries from the Azure portal against the collected data. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
For Box 1: In the Azure portal you can set up a Log Analytics workspace, which is a unique Log Analytics environment with its own data repository, data sources, and solutions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/learn/quick-create-workspace
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-standard-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 17
You have a Basic App Service plan named ASP1 that hosts an Azure App Service named App1. You need to configure a custom domain and enable backups for App1. What should you do first?

A.    Configure a WebJob for App1.
B.    Scale up ASP1.
C.    Scale out ASP1.
D.    Configure the application settings for App1.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains an Azure virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. You need to connect VNet1 to the on-premises network by using a site-to-site VPN. The solution must minimize cost. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create a local site VPN gateway.
B.    Create a VPN gateway that uses the VpnGw1 SKU.
C.    Create a VPN gateway that uses the Basic SKU.
D.    Create a gateway subnet.
E.    Create a connection.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
For a site to site VPN, you need a local gateway, a gateway subnet, a VPN gateway, and a connection to connect the local gateway and the VPN gateway. That would be four answers in this question. However, the question states that VNet1 connects to your on-premises network by using Azure ExpressRoute. For an ExpressRoute connection, VNET1 must already be configured with a gateway subnet so we don’t need another one.

NEW QUESTION 19
You are configuring Azure Active Directory (AD) Privileged Identity Management. You need to provide a user named Admm1 with read access to a resource group named RG1 for only one month. The user role must be assigned immediately. What should you do?

A.    Assign an active role.
B.    Assign an eligible role.
C.    Assign a permanently active role.
D.    Create a custom role and a conditional access policy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management introduces the concept of an eligible admin. Eligible admins should be users that need privileged access now and then, but not all-day, every day. The role is inactive until the user needs access, then they complete an activation process and become an active admin for a predetermined amount of time.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 20
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named Tenant1 and Tenant2. Subscnption1 is associated to Tenant1 Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is enabled for all the users in Tenant1. You need to enable MFA for the users in Tenant2. The solution must maintain MFA for Tenant1. What should you do first?

A.    Transfer the administration of Subscription1 to a global administrator of Tenants.
B.    Configure the MFA Server setting in Tenant1.
C.    Create and link a subscription to Tenant2.
D.    Change the directory for Subscription1.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
……

Case Study 1 – ADatum
ADatum Corporation is a financial company that has two main offices in New York and Los Angeles. ADatum has a subsidiary named Fabrikam, Inc. that shares the Los Angeles office. ADatum is conducting an initial deployment of Azure services to host new line-of-business applications and is preparing to migrate its existing on-premises workloads to Azure. ADatum uses Microsoft Exchange Online for email.
……

NEW QUESTION 201
You need to recommend an environment for the deployment of App1. What should you recommend?

A.    A new App Service plan that uses the P3v2 pricing tier.
B.    ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I1 pricing tier.
C.    ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I3 pricing tier.
D.    A new App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-app-service-environment-control-inbound-traffic

NEW QUESTION 202
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a URL path-based routing rule
C.    a basic listener
D.    a basic routing rule

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 203
What should you create to configure AG2?

A.    multi-site listeners
B.    basic listeners
C.    URL path-based routing rules
D.    basic routing rules
E.    an additional public IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
You need to configure an Azure Application Gateway with multi-site listeners to direct different URLs to different pools.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/multiple-site-overview

NEW QUESTION 204
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd. (A)
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The Montreal office has 2,000 employees. The Seattle office has 1,000 employees. The New York office has 200 employees. All the resources used by Contoso are hosted on-premises. Contoso creates a new Azure subscription. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant uses a domain named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant uses the P1 pricing tier.
……

NEW QUESTION 221
You discover that VM3 does NOT meet the technical requirements. You need to verify whether the issue relates to the NSGs. What should you use?

A.    Diagram in VNet1.
B.    The security recommendations in Azure Advisor.
C.    Diagnostic settings in Azure Monitor.
D.    Diagnose and solve problems in Traffic Manager Profiles.
E.    IP flow verify in Azure Network Watcher.

Answer: E
Explanation:
IP flow verify checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction, protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the rule that denied the packet is returned. While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verify helps administrators quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

NEW QUESTION 222
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A.    an Azure Notification Hub
B.    an Azure Event Hub
C.    an Azure Logic App
D.    an Azure Services Bus

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any code.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 223
You need to recommend a solution to automate the configuration for the finance department users. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommended?

A.    Azure AP B2C.
B.    Azure AD Identity Protection.
C.    An Azure logic app and the Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) client.
D.    Dynamic groups and conditional access policies.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The recommendation is to use conditional access policies that can then be targeted to groups of users, specific applications, or other conditions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates

NEW QUESTION 224
……

Case Study 3 – Humongous Insurance
Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest named humongousinsurance.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2012. You recently provisioned an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office. Each office has a dedicated connection to the Internet. Each office has several link load balancers that provide access to the servers.
……

NEW QUESTION 231
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A.    Partner information
B.    Overview
C.    Payment methods
D.    Invoices

Answer: D
Explanation:
You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date

NEW QUESTION 232
You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy.
B.    A Recovery Services vault and a backup policy.
C.    An Azure Key Vault and an access policy.
D.    An Azure Storage account and an access policy.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
D: Seamless SSO works with any method of cloud authentication – Password Hash Synchronization or Pass-through Authentication, and can be enabled via Azure AD Connect.
B: You can gradually roll out Seamless SSO to your users. You start by adding the following Azure AD URL to all or selected users’ Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy in Active Directory.
Incorrect:
Not A: Seamless SSO needs the user’s device to be domain-joined, but doesn’t need for the device to be Azure AD Joined.
Not C: Azure AD connect does not port 8080. It uses port 443.
Not E: Seamless SSO is not applicable to Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sso-quick-start

NEW QUESTION 233
You need to resolve the licensing issue before you attempt to assign the license again. What should you do?

A.    From the Groups blade, invite the user accounts to a new group.
B.    From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.
C.    From the Directory role blade, modify the directory role.

Answer: B
Explanation:
License cannot be assigned to a user without a usage location specified.

NEW QUESTION 234
……

Case Study 4 – Contoso, Ltd. (B)
Contoso, Ltd. is a manufacturing company that has offices worldwide. Contoso works with partner organizations to bring products to market. Contoso products are manufactured by using blueprint files that the company authors and maintains. Currently, Contoso uses multiple types of servers for business operations, including the following:
……

NEW QUESTION 241
You need to meet the user requirement for Admin1. What should you do?

A.    From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription, and then modify the Properties.
B.    From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription, and then modify the Access control (IAM) settings.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Properties.
D.    From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Groups.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Change the Service administrator for an Azure subscription.
– Sign in to Account Center as the Account administrator.
– Select a subscription.
– On the right side, select Edit subscription details.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator

NEW QUESTION 242
You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do?

A.    Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
B.    Use the Azure Import/Export service.
C.    Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer.
D.    Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Azure Storage Explorer is a free tool from Microsoft that allows you to work with Azure Storage data on Windows, macOS, and Linux. You can use it to upload and download data from Azure blob storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-data-to-azure-blob-using-azure-storage-explorer

NEW QUESTION 243
You need to recommend an identify solution that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?

A.    federated single-on (SSO) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
B.    password hash synchronization and single sign-on (SSO)
C.    cloud-only user accounts
D.    pass-through Authentication and single sign-on (SSO)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Active Directory Federation Services is a feature and web service in the Windows Server Operating System that allows sharing of identity information outside a company’s network.
https://www.sherweb.com/blog/office-365/active-directory-federation-services/

NEW QUESTION 244
……

More Lab/SIMULATION
……


Download the newest PassLeader AZ-103 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

AZ-103 PDF dumps & AZ-103 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/az-103.html (250 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New AZ-103 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1pcJSvWksUYfrmRT5Hy9xnh0iGBvW_sfq

P.S. New AZ-102 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1HceOeaJ6TUh6408k3UU7gZb7aXGzzGb

[13/May/2019 Updated] PassLeader Valid DP-100 Real Exam Questions Guarantee 100 Percent Pass

$
0
0

New Updated DP-100 Exam Questions from PassLeader DP-100 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader DP-100 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-100.html (112 Q&As)

Keywords: DP-100 exam dumps, DP-100 exam questions, DP-100 VCE dumps, DP-100 PDF dumps, DP-100 practice tests, DP-100 study guide, DP-100 braindumps, Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure Exam

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

NEW QUESTION 1
You are conducting feature engineering to prepuce data for further analysis. The data includes seasonal patterns on inventory requirements. You need to select the appropriate method to conduct feature engineering on the data. Which method should you use?

A.    Exponential Smoothing (ETS) function.
B.    One Class Support Vector Machine module.
C.    Time Series Anomaly Detection module.
D.    Finite Impulse Response (FIR) Filter module.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You plan to use a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) to train deep learning models using Compute Unified Device Architecture (CUDA) computations. You need to configure the DLVM to support CUDA. What should you implement?

A.    Intel Software Guard Extensions (Intel SGX) technology.
B.    Solid State Drives (SSD).
C.    Graphic Processing Unit (GPU).
D.    Computer Processing Unit (CPU) speed increase by using overclocking.
E.    High Random Access Memory (RAM) configuration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You are creating a new experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You have a small dataset that has missing values in many columns. The data does not require the application of predictors for each column. You plan to use the Clean Missing Data module to handle the missing data. You need to select a data cleaning method. Which method should you use?

A.    Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE)
B.    Replace using MICE
C.    Replace using Probabilistic PCA
D.    Normalization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You are a data scientist using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You need to normalize values to produce an output column into bins to predict a target column.
Solution: Apply an Equal Width with Custom Start and Stop binning mode.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use the Entropy MDL binning mode which has a target column.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins

NEW QUESTION 5
You are using Azure Machine Learning Studio to perform feature engineering on a dataset. You need to normalize values to produce a feature column grouped into bins.
Solution: Apply an Entropy Minimum Description Length (MDL) binning mode.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Entropy MDL binning mode: This method requires that you select the column you want to predict and the column or columns that you want to group into bins. It then makes a pass over the data and attempts to determine the number of bins that minimizes the entropy. In other words, it chooses a number of bins that allows the data column to best predict the target column.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/group-data-into-bins

NEW QUESTION 6
You are a data scientist building a deep convolutional neural network (CNN) for image classification. The CNN model you built shows signs of overfitting. You need to reduce overfitting and converge the model to an optimal fit. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Reduce the amount of training data.
B.    Add an additional dense layer with 64 input units.
C.    Add L1/L2 regularization.
D.    Use training data augmentation.
E.    Add an additional dense layer with 512 input units.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are building an intelligent solution using machine learning models. The environment must support the following requirements:
– Data scientists must build notebooks in a cloud environment.
– Data scientists must use automatic feature engineering and model building in machine learning pipelines.
– Notebooks must be deployed to retrain using Spark instances with dynamic worker allocation.
– Notebooks must be exportable to be version controlled locally.
You need to create the environment. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Create an Azure HDInsight cluster to include the Apache Spark Mlib library.
Step 2: Install Microsot Machine Learning for Apache Spark. You install AzureML on your Azure HDInsight cluster. Microsoft Machine Learning for Apache Spark (MMLSpark) provides a number of deep learning and data science tools for Apache Spark, including seamless integration of Spark Machine Learning pipelines with Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit (CNTK) and OpenCV, enabling you to quickly create powerful, highly-scalable predictive and analytical models for large image and text datasets.
Step 3: Create and execute the Zeppelin notebooks on the cluster.
Step 4: When the cluster is ready, export Zeppelin notebooks to a local environment. Notebooks must be exportable to be version controlled locally.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-zeppelin-notebook
https://azuremlbuild.blob.core.windows.net/pysparkapi/intro.html

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You create an experiment in Azure Machine Learning Studio. You add a training dataset that contains 10,000 rows. The first 9,000 rows represent class 0 (90 percent). The remaining 1,000 rows represent class 1 (10 percent). The training set is imbalances between two classes. You must increase the number of training examples for class 1 to 4,000 by using 5 data rows. You add the Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE) module to the experiment. You need to configure the module. Which values should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: 300. You type 300 (%), the module triples the percentage of minority cases (3000) compared to the original dataset (1000).
Box 2: 5. We should use 5 data rows. Use the Number of nearest neighbors option to determine the size of the feature space that the SMOTE algorithm uses when in building new cases. A nearest neighbor is a row of data (a case) that is very similar to some target case. The distance between any two cases is measured by combining the weighted vectors of all features. By increasing the number of nearest neighbors, you get features from more cases. By keeping the number of nearest neighbors low, you use features that are more like those in the original sample.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote

NEW QUESTION 9
You are creating a machine learning model. You have a dataset that contains null rows. You need to use the Clean Missing Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to identify and resolve the null and missing data in the dataset. Which parameter should you use?

A.    Replace with mean
B.    Remove entire column
C.    Remove entire row
D.    Hot Deck

Answer: C
Explanation:
Remove entire row: Completely removes any row in the dataset that has one or more missing values. This is useful if the missing value can be considered randomly missing.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/clean-missing-data

NEW QUESTION 10
You use the Two-Class Neural Network module in Azure Machine Learning Studio to build a binary classification model. You use the Tune Model Hyperparameters module to tune accuracy for the model. You need to select the hyperparameters that should be tuned using the Tune Model Hyperparameters module. Which two hyperparameters should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Number of hidden nodes.
B.    Learning Rate.
C.    The type of the normalizer.
D.    Number of learning iterations.
E.    Hidden layer specification.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
D: For Number of learning iterations, specify the maximum number of times the algorithm should process the training cases.
E: For Hidden layer specification, select the type of network architecture to create. Between the input and output layers you can insert multiple hidden layers. Most predictive tasks can be accomplished easily with only one or a few hidden layers.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/two-class-neural-network

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Sporting Events
You are a data scientist in a company that provides data science for professional sporting events. Models will be global and local market data to meet the following business goals:
……

NEW QUESTION 101
You need to resolve the local machine learning pipeline performance issue. What should you do?

A.    Increase Graphic Processing Units (GPUs).
B.    Increase the learning rate.
C.    Increase the training iterations.
D.    Increase Central Processing Units (CPUs).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102
You need to select an environment that will meet the business and data requirements. Which environment should you use?

A.    Azure HDInsight with Spark MLlib
B.    Azure Cognitive Services
C.    Azure Machine Learning Studio
D.    Microsoft Machine Learning Server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
You need to implement a scaling strategy for the local penalty detection data. Which normalization type should you use?

A.    Streaming
B.    Weight
C.    Batch
D.    Cosine

Answer: C
Explanation:
Post batch normalization statistics (PBN) is the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit (CNTK) version of how to evaluate the population mean and variance of Batch Normalization which could be used in inference Original Paper. In CNTK, custom networks are defined using the BrainScriptNetworkBuilder and described in the CNTK network description language “BrainScript”.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cognitive-toolkit/post-batch-normalization-statistics

NEW QUESTION 104
……

Case Study 2 – Fabrikam
You are a data scientist for Fabrikam Residences, a company specializing in quality private and commercial property in the United States. Fabrikam Residences is considering expanding into Europe and has asked you to investigate prices for private residences in major European cities. You use Azure Machine Learning Studio to measure the median value of properties. You produce a regression model to predict property prices by using the Linear Regression and Bayesian Linear Regression modules.
……

NEW QUESTION 107
You need to select a feature extraction method. Which method should you use?

A.    Mutual information
B.    Mood’s median test
C.    Kendall correlation
D.    Permutation Feature Importance

Answer: C
Explanation:
In statistics, the Kendall rank correlation coefficient, commonly referred to as Kendall’s tau coefficient (after the Greek letter τ), is a statistic used to measure the ordinal association between two measured quantities. It is a supported method of the Azure Machine Learning Feature selection.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kendall_rank_correlation_coefficient
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/feature-selection-modules

NEW QUESTION 108
Drag and Drop
You need to correct the model fit issue. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 109
HotSpot
You need to configure the Feature Based Feature Selection module based on the experiment requirements and datasets. How should you configure the module properties? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 110
……


Download the newest PassLeader DP-100 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

DP-100 PDF dumps & DP-100 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-100.html (112 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

[13/May/2019 Updated] Free PassLeader DP-200 VCE and PDF Dumps With New Update Exam Questions

$
0
0

New Updated DP-200 Exam Questions from PassLeader DP-200 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader DP-200 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-200.html (60 Q&As)

Keywords: DP-200 exam dumps, DP-200 exam questions, DP-200 VCE dumps, DP-200 PDF dumps, DP-200 practice tests, DP-200 study guide, DP-200 braindumps, Implementing an Azure Data Solution Exam

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

NEW QUESTION 1
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the year. You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost. Which option or options should you configure?

A.    Number of transactions only
B.    eDTUs per database only
C.    Number of databases only
D.    CPU usage only
E.    eDTUs and max data size

Answer: E
Explanation:
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves determining the following:
– Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your choice of resourcing model).
– Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based either on the DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

NEW QUESTION 2
A company manages several on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases. You need to migrate the databases to Microsoft Azure by using a backup and restore process. Which data technology should you use?

A.    Azure SQL Database single database
B.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse
C.    Azure Cosmos DB
D.    Azure SQL Database Managed Instance

Answer: D
Explanation:
Managed instance is a new deployment option of Azure SQL Database, providing near 100% compatibility with the latest SQL Server on-premises (Enterprise Edition) Database Engine, providing a native virtual network (VNet) implementation that addresses common security concerns, and a business model favorable for on-premises SQL Server customers. The managed instance deployment model allows existing SQL Server customers to lift and shift their on-premises applications to the cloud with minimal application and database changes.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 3
A company is designing a hybrid solution to synchronize data and on-premises Microsoft SQL Server database to Azure SQL Database. You must perform an assessment of databases to determine whether data will move without compatibility issues. You need to perform the assessment. Which tool should you use?

A.    SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
C.    SQL Vulnerability Assessment (VA)
D.    Azure SQL Data Sync
E.    Data Migration Assistant (DMA)

Answer: E
Explanation:
The Data Migration Assistant (DMA) helps you upgrade to a modern data platform by detecting compatibility issues that can impact database functionality in your new version of SQL Server or Azure SQL Database. DMA recommends performance and reliability improvements for your target environment and allows you to move your schema, data, and uncontained objects from your source server to your target server.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/dma/dma-overview

NEW QUESTION 4
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
– Scale to minimize costs
– Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor cluster load using the Ambari Web UI.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ambari Web UI does not provide information to suggest how to scale. Instead monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-manage-ambari

NEW QUESTION 5
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch processing will run daily and must:
– Scale to minimize costs
– Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs. Management solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools. These solutions collect important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the metrics. These solutions also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By using the metrics that you collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial

NEW QUESTION 6
A company plans to use Azure Storage for file storage purposes. Compliance rules require:
– A single storage account to store all operations including reads, writes and deletes.
– Retention of an on-premises copy of historical operations.
You need to configure the storage account. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Blob.
B.    Use the AzCopy tool to download log data from $logs/blob.
C.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Table.
D.    Use the storage client to download log data from $logs/table.
E.    Configure the storage account to log read, write and delete operations for ServiceType Queue.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Storage Logging logs request data in a set of blobs in a blob container named $logs in your storage account. This container does not show up if you list all the blob containers in your account but you can see its contents if you access it directly. To view and analyze your log data, you should download the blobs that contain the log data you are interested in to a local machine. Many storage-browsing tools enable you to download blobs from your storage account; you can also use the Azure Storage team provided command-line Azure Copy Tool (AzCopy) to download your log data.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/enabling-storage-logging-and-accessing-log-data

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are developing the data platform for a global retail company. The company operates during normal working hours in each region. The analytical database is used once a week for building sales projections. Each region maintains its own private virtual network. Building the sales projections is very resource intensive are generates upwards of 20 terabytes (TB) of data. Microsoft Azure SQL Databases must be provisioned.
– Database provisioning must maximize performance and minimize cost.
– The daily sales for each region must be stored in an Azure SQL Database instance.
– Once a day, the data for all regions must be loaded in an analytical Azure SQL Database instance.
You need to provision Azure SQL database instances. How should you provision the database instances? (To answer, drag the appropriate Azure SQL products to the correct databases. Each Azure SQL product may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Azure SQL Database elastic pools. SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database server and share a set number of resources at a set price. Elastic pools in Azure SQL Database enable SaaS developers to optimize the price performance for a group of databases within a prescribed budget while delivering performance elasticity for each database.
Box 2: Azure SQL Database Hyperscale. A Hyperscale database is an Azure SQL database in the Hyperscale service tier that is backed by the Hyperscale scale-out storage technology. A Hyperscale database supports up to 100 TB of data and provides high throughput and performance, as well as rapid scaling to adapt to the workload requirements. Scaling is transparent to the application – connectivity, query processing, and so on, work like any other SQL database.
Incorrect:
Azure SQL Database Managed Instance: The managed instance deployment model is designed for customers looking to migrate a large number of apps from on- premises or IaaS, self-built, or ISV provided environment to fully managed PaaS cloud environment, with as low migration effort as possible.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-service-tier-hyperscale-faq

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
A company is planning to use Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB as the data store for an application. You have the following Azure CLI command:
az cosmosdb create –name “cosmosdbdev1” –resource-group “rgdev”
You need to minimize latency and expose the SQL API. How should you complete the command? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Eventual. With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix, and eventual consistency.
Box 2: GlobalDocumentDB. Select Core(SQL) to create a document database and query by using SQL syntax.
Note: The API determines the type of account to create. Azure Cosmos DB provides five APIs: Core(SQL) and MongoDB for document databases, Gremlin for graph databases, Azure Table, and Cassandra.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/create-sql-api-dotnet

NEW QUESTION 9
You plan to use Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances with strict user access control. A user object must:
– Move with the database if it is run elsewhere
– Be able to create additional users
You need to create the user object with correct permissions. Which two Transact-SQL commands should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    ALTER LOGIN Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
B.    CREATE LOGIN Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
C.    ALTER ROLE db_owner ADD MEMBER Mary;
D.    CREATE USER Mary WITH PASSWORD = ‘strong_password’;
E.    GRANT ALTER ANY USER TO Mary;

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: ALTER ROLE adds or removes members to or from a database role, or changes the name of a user-defined database role. Members of the db_owner fixed database role can perform all configuration and maintenance activities on the database, and can also drop the database in SQL Server.
D: CREATE USER adds a user to the current database.
Note: Logins are created at the server level, while users are created at the database level. In other words, a login allows you to connect to the SQL Server service (also called an instance), and permissions inside the database are granted to the database users, not the logins. The logins will be assigned to server roles (for example, serveradmin) and the database users will be assigned to roles within that database (eg. db_datareader, db_bckupoperator).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/alter-role-transact-sql
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-user-transact-sql

NEW QUESTION 10
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. You need to ingest and visualize real-time Twitter data by using Microsoft Azure. Which three technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Event Grid topic.
B.    Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Hub.
C.    Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Grid.
D.    Logic App that sends Twitter posts which have target keywords to Azure.
E.    Event Grid subscription.
F.    Event Hub instance.

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
You can use Azure Logic apps to send tweets to an event hub and then use a Stream Analytics job to read from event hub and send them to PowerBI.
https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Integrations-with-Files-and/Twitter-streaming-analytics-step-by-step/td-p/9594

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Proseware, Inc.
Proseware, Inc. develops and manages a product named Poll Taker. The product is used for delivering public opinion polling and analysis. Polling data comes from a variety of sources, including online surveys, house-to-house interviews, and booths at public events.
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to ensure that phone-based poling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. How should you configure Azure Data Factory?

A.    Use a tumbling schedule trigger.
B.    Use an event-based trigger.
C.    Use a schedule trigger.
D.    Use manual execution.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When creating a schedule trigger, you specify a schedule (start date, recurrence, end date etc.) for the trigger, and associate with a Data Factory pipeline.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/how-to-create-schedule-trigger

NEW QUESTION 52
Drag and Drop
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer are and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 53
HotSpot
You need to ensure phone-based polling data upload reliability requirements are met. How should you configure monitoring? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso
Contoso relies on an extensive partner network for marketing, sales, and distribution. Contoso uses external companies that manufacture everything from the actual pharmaceutical to the packaging. The majority of the company’s data reside in Microsoft SQL Server database. Application databases fall into one of the following tiers:
……

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to process and query ingested Tier 9 data. Which two options should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Notification Hub
B.    Transact-SQL statements
C.    Azure Cache for Redis
D.    Apache Kafka statements
E.    Azure Event Grid
F.    Azure Stream Analytics

Answer: EF
Explanation:
Event Hubs provides a Kafka endpoint that can be used by your existing Kafka based applications as an alternative to running your own Kafka cluster. You can stream data into Kafka-enabled Event Hubs and process it with Azure Stream Analytics, in the following steps:
– Create a Kafka enabled Event Hubs namespace.
– Create a Kafka client that sends messages to the event hub.
– Create a Stream Analytics job that copies data from the event hub into an Azure blob storage.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-kafka-stream-analytics

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to set up Azure Data Factory pipelines to meet data movement requirements. Which integration runtime should you use?

A.    Self-hosted Integration Runtime
B.    Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime
C.    .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR)
D.    Azure Integration Runtime

Answer: A
Explanation:
The following table describes the capabilities and network support for each of the integration runtime types:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-integration-runtime

NEW QUESTION 59
You need to implement diagnostic logging for Data Warehouse monitoring. Which log should you use?

A.    RequestSteps
B.    DmsWorkers
C.    SqlRequests
D.    ExecRequests

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-pdw-sql-requests-transact-sql

NEW QUESTION 60
……


Download the newest PassLeader DP-200 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

DP-200 PDF dumps & DP-200 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-200.html (60 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

[13/May/2019 Updated] Quality 65q DP-201 Exam Questions Verified By Experts Ensure 100 Percent Pass

$
0
0

New Updated DP-201 Exam Questions from PassLeader DP-201 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader DP-201 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-201.html (65 Q&As)

Keywords: DP-201 exam dumps, DP-201 exam questions, DP-201 VCE dumps, DP-201 PDF dumps, DP-201 practice tests, DP-201 study guide, DP-201 braindumps, Designing an Azure Data Solution Exam

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

NEW QUESTION 1
You are evaluating data storage solutions to support a new application. You need to recommend a data storage solution that represents data by using nodes and relationships in graph structures. Which data storage solution should you recommend?

A.    Blob Storage
B.    Cosmos DB
C.    Data Lake Store
D.    HDInsight

Answer: B
Explanation:
For large graphs with lots of entities and relationships, you can perform very complex analyses very quickly. Many graph databases provide a query language that you can use to traverse a network of relationships efficiently.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/technology-choices/data-store-overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You are designing a data processing solution that will implement the lambda architecture pattern. The solution will use Spark running on HDInsight for data processing. You need to recommend a data storage technology for the solution. Which two technologies should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Cosmos DB
B.    Azure Service Bus
C.    Azure Storage Queue
D.    Apache Cassandra
E.    Kafka HDInsight

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Option A:
To implement a lambda architecture on Azure, you can combine the following technologies to accelerate real-time big data analytics:
– Azure Cosmos DB, the industry’s first globally distributed, multi-model database service.
– Apache Spark for Azure HDInsight, a processing framework that runs large-scale data analytics applications.
– Azure Cosmos DB change feed, which streams new data to the batch layer for HDInsight to process.
– The Spark to Azure Cosmos DB Connector.
Option E: You can use Apache Spark to stream data into or out of Apache Kafka on HDInsight using DStreams.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/lambda-architecture

NEW QUESTION 3
You are designing a solution for a company. The solution will use model training for objective classification. You need to design the solution. What should you recommend?

A.    An Azure Cognitive Services application.
B.    A Spark Streaming job.
C.    Interactive Spark queries.
D.    Power BI models.
E.    A Spark application that uses Spark MLlib.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Spark in SQL Server big data cluster enables AI and machine learning. You can use Apache Spark MLlib to create a machine learning application to do simple predictive analysis on an open dataset. MLlib is a core Spark library that provides many utilities useful for machine learning tasks, including utilities that are suitable for:
– Classification
– Regression
– Clustering
– Topic modeling
– Singular value decomposition (SVD) and principal component analysis (PCA)
– Hypothesis testing and calculating sample statistics
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-machine-learning-mllib-ipython

NEW QUESTION 4
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store. Shops will upload data every 10 days. Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be removed. You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes that use the data warehouse.
Solution: Insert data from shops and perform the data corruption check in a transaction. Rollback transfer if corruption is detected.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data corruption checks complete.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

NEW QUESTION 5
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store. Shops will upload data every 10 days. Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be removed. You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes that use the data warehouse.
Solution: Create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data corruption checks complete.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
User-Defined Restore Points. This feature enables you to manually trigger snapshots to create restore points of your data warehouse before and after large modifications. This capability ensures that restore points are logically consistent, which provides additional data protection in case of any workload interruptions or user errors for quick recovery time.
Note: A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data warehouse. Restoring your data warehouse is an essential part of any business continuity and disaster recovery strategy because it re-creates your data after accidental corruption or deletion.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

NEW QUESTION 6
You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse each day. You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading. You need to design the staging tables. What type of tables should you recommend?

A.    Round-robin distributed table
B.    Hash-distributed table
C.    Replicated table
D.    External table

Answer: A
Explanation:
To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option.
Incorrect:
Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer, but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data

NEW QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
You are designing a Spark job that performs batch processing of daily web log traffic. When you deploy the job in the production environment, it must meet the following requirements:
– Run once a day.
– Display status information on the company intranet as the job runs.
You need to recommend technologies for triggering and monitoring jobs. Which technologies should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct locations. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Livy. You can use Livy to run interactive Spark shells or submit batch jobs to be run on Spark.
Box 2: Beeline. Apache Beeline can be used to run Apache Hive queries on HDInsight. You can use Beeline with Apache Spark.
Note: Beeline is a Hive client that is included on the head nodes of your HDInsight cluster. Beeline uses JDBC to connect to HiveServer2, a service hosted on your HDInsight cluster. You can also use Beeline to access Hive on HDInsight remotely over the internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-livy-rest-interface
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-use-hive-beeline

NEW QUESTION 8
HotSpot
You are designing a recovery strategy for your Azure SQL Databases. The recovery strategy must use default automated backup settings. The solution must include a Point-in time restore recovery strategy. You need to recommend which backups to use and the order in which to restore backups. What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
All Basic, Standard, and Premium databases are protected by automatic backups. Full backups are taken every week, differential backups every day, and log backups every 5 minutes.
https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/azure-sql-database-point-in-time-restore/

NEW QUESTION 9
A company stores sensitive information about customers and employees in Azure SQL Database. You need to ensure that the sensitive data remains encrypted in transit and at rest. What should you recommend?

A.    Transparent Data Encryption
B.    Always Encrypted with secure enclaves
C.    Azure Disk Encryption
D.    SQL Server AlwaysOn

Answer: B
Explanation:
Not A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels.
https://cloudblogs.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2018/12/17/confidential-computing-using-always-encrypted-with-secure-enclaves-in-sql-server-2019-preview/

NEW QUESTION 10
You plan to use Azure SQL Database to support a line of business app. You need to identify sensitive data that is stored in the database and monitor access to the data. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Enable Data Discovery and Classification.
B.    Implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
C.    Enable Auditing.
D.    Run Vulnerability Assessment.
E.    Use Advanced Threat Protection.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 11
……

Case Study 1 – Trey Research
Trey Research is a technology innovator. The company partners with regional transportation department office to build solutions that improve traffic flow and safety. The company is developing the following solutions:
……

NEW QUESTION 41
You need to design the vehicle images storage solution. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Media Services
B.    Azure Premium Storage Account
C.    Azure Redis Cache
D.    Azure Cosmos DB

Answer: B
Explanation:
Premium Storage stores data on the latest technology Solid State Drives (SSDs) whereas Standard Storage stores data on Hard Disk Drives (HDDs). Premium Storage is designed for Azure Virtual Machine workloads which require consistent high IO performance and low latency in order to host IO intensive workloads like OLTP, Big Data, and Data Warehousing on platforms like SQL Server, MongoDB, Cassandra, and others. With Premium Storage, more customers will be able to lift-and-shift demanding enterprise applications to the cloud.
https://azure.microsoft.com/es-es/blog/introducing-premium-storage-high-performance-storage-for-azure-virtual-machine-workloads/

NEW QUESTION 42
You need to recommend an Azure SQL Database pricing tier for Planning Assistance. Which pricing tier should you recommend?

A.    Business critical Azure SQL Database single database.
B.    General purpose Azure SQL Database Managed Instance.
C.    Business critical Azure SQL Database Managed Instance.
D.    General purpose Azure SQL Database single database.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure resource costs must be minimized where possible. Data used for Planning Assistance must be stored in a sharded Azure SQL Database. The SLA for Planning Assistance is 70 percent, and multiday outages are permitted.

NEW QUESTION 43
You need to design the runtime environment for the Real Time Response system. What should you recommend?

A.    General Purpose nodes without the Enterprise Security package.
B.    Memory Optimized nodes without the Enterprise Security package.
C.    Memory Optimized nodes with the Enterprise Security package.
D.    General Purpose nodes with the Enterprise Security package.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 44
……

Case Study 2 – Proseware, Inc.
Proseware, Inc. identifies the following business requirements:
– You must transfer all images and customer data to cloud storage and remove on-premises servers.
– You must develop an analytical processing solution for transforming customer data.
– You must develop an image object and color tagging solution.
– Capital expenditures must be minimized.
– Cloud resource costs must be minimized.
The solution has the following technical requirements:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You need to design the solution for analyzing customer data. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Databricks
B.    Azure Data Lake Storage
C.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse
D.    Azure Cognitive Services
E.    Azure Batch

Answer: A
Explanation:
Customer data must be analyzed using managed Spark clusters. You create spark clusters through Azure Databricks.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/quickstart-create-databricks-workspace-portal

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to recommend a solution for storing the image tagging data. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure File Storage
B.    Azure Cosmos DB
C.    Azure Blob Storage
D.    Azure SQL Database
E.    Azure SQL Data Warehouse

Answer: C
Explanation:
Image data must be stored in a single data store at minimum cost.
Note: Azure Blob storage is Microsoft’s object storage solution for the cloud. Blob storage is optimized for storing massive amounts of unstructured data. Unstructured data is data that does not adhere to a particular data model or definition, such as text or binary data. Blob storage is designed for:
– Serving images or documents directly to a browser.
– Storing files for distributed access.
– Streaming video and audio.
– Writing to log files.
– Storing data for backup and restore, disaster recovery, and archiving.
– Storing data for analysis by an on-premises or Azure-hosted service.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blobs-introduction

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to design a backup solution for the processed customer data. What should you include in the design?

A.    AzCopy
B.    AdlCopy
C.    Geo-Redundancy
D.    Geo-Replication

Answer: C
Explanation:
Geo-redundant storage (GRS) is designed to provide at least 99.99999999999999% (16 9’s) durability of objects over a given year by replicating your data to a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region. If your storage account has GRS enabled, then your data is durable even in the case of a complete regional outage or a disaster in which the primary region isn’t recoverable.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 3 – Contoso
Contoso has the following virtual machines (VMs):
……

NEW QUESTION 61
You need to design a solution to meet the SQL Server storage requirements for CONT_SQL3. Which type of disk should you recommend?

A.    Standard SSD Managed Disk
B.    Premium SSD Managed Disk
C.    Ultra SSD Managed Disk

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/disks-types

NEW QUESTION 62
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend?

A.    AlwaysOn
B.    Transactional processing
C.    General
D.    Data warehousing

Answer: B
Explanation:
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
– In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)
– Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads
– Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sql-database.html

NEW QUESTION 63
You need to recommend a backup strategy for CONT_SQL1 and CONT_SQL2. What should you recommend?

A.    Use AzCopy and store the data in Azure.
B.    Configure Azure SQL Database long-term retention for all databases.
C.    Configure Accelerated Database Recovery.
D.    Use DWLoader.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 64
……


Download the newest PassLeader DP-201 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

DP-201 PDF dumps & DP-201 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/dp-201.html (65 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New DP-201 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VdzP5HksyU93Arqn65qPe5UFEm2Sxooh

P.S. New DP-100 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f70QWrCCtvNby8oY6BYvrMS16IXuRiR2

P.S. New DP-200 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CTHwJ44u5lT4tsb2qo8oThaQ5c_vwun1

[14/May/2019 Updated] Free Valid PassLeader 250q AZ-300 Exam Questions Ensure 100% Exam Passing

$
0
0

New Updated AZ-300 Exam Questions from PassLeader AZ-300 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader AZ-300 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/az-300.html (250 Q&As)

Keywords: AZ-300 exam dumps, AZ-300 exam questions, AZ-300 VCE dumps, AZ-300 PDF dumps, AZ-300 practice tests, AZ-300 study guide, AZ-300 braindumps, Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Exam

P.S. New AZ-300 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f0aRTfxMz2rxKc4dy3CZjxKse4HWA3rQ

P.S. New AZ-301 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ah1U5ZfTQkd7hMRDhnN0gFL7q8qMqtUl

P.S. New AZ-302 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=11UyQ8nIk7dNcGLzvzsxJpAqqMkTkctZw

NEW QUESTION 198
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines. You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or deallocated. What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require?

A.    three rules and three action groups
B.    one rule and one action group
C.    three rules and one action group
D.    one rule and three action groups

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 199
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 DataCenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Upload a configuration script.
B.    Create an automation account.
C.    Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
D.    Create an Azure policy.
E.    Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template

NEW QUESTION 200
An app uses a virtual network with two subnets. One subnet is used for the application server. The other subnet is used for a database server. A network virtual appliance (NVA) is used as a firewall. Traffic destined for one specific address prefix is routed to the NVA and then to an on-premises database server that stores sensitive data. A Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) route is used for the traffic to the on-premises database server. You need to recommend a method for creating the user-defined route. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    For the virtual network configuration, use a VPN.
B.    For the next hop type, use virtual network peering.
C.    For the virtual network configuration, use Azure ExpressRoute.
D.    For the next hop type, use a virtual network gateway.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview

NEW QUESTION 201
You manage a solution in Azure that consists of a single application which runs on a virtual machine (VM). Traffic to the application has increased dramatically. The application must not experience any downtime and scaling must be dynamically defined. You need to define an auto-scale strategy to ensure that the VM can handle the workload. Which three options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Deploy application automatic vertical scaling.
B.    Create a VM availability set.
C.    Create a VM scale set.
D.    Deploy application automatic horizontal scaling.
E.    Deploy a custom auto-scale implementation.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 202
You are implementing authentication for applications in your company. You plan to implement self-service password reset (SSPR) and multifactor authentication (MFA) in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to select authentication mechanisms that can be used for both MFA and SSPR. Which two authentication methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Short Message Service (SMS) messages
B.    Azure AD passwords
C.    Email addresses
D.    Security questions
E.    App passwords

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

NEW QUESTION 203
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1.
Solution: From the RG1 blade, you click Deployments.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204
You plan to use the Azure Import/Export service to copy files to a storage account. Which two files should you create before you prepare the drives for the import job? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    a dataset CSV file
B.    an XML manifest file
C.    a driveset CSV file
D.    a PowerShell PS1 file
E.    a JSON configuration file

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Modify the dataset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides. Depending on whether you want to import a file or folder or both, add entries in the dataset.csv file.
C: Modify the driveset.csv file in the root folder where the tool resides.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-data-to-files

NEW QUESTION 205
You create an Azure Storage account named contosostorage. You plan to create a file share named data. Users need to map a drive to the data file share from home computers that run Windows 10. Which outbound port should you open between the home computers and the data file share?

A.    80
B.    443
C.    445
D.    3389

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ensure port 445 is open: The SMB protocol requires TCP port 445 to be open; connections will fail if port 445 is blocked.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-windows

NEW QUESTION 206
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
……
Your on-premises network uses an IP address range of 131.107.2.0 to 131.107.2.255. You need to ensure that only devices from the on-premises network can connect to the rg1lod8322490n1 storage account. What should you do from the Azure portal?

Answer:
Step 1: Navigate to the rg1lod8322490n1 storage account.
Step 2: Click on the settings menu called Firewalls and virtual networks.
Step 3: Ensure that you have elected to allow access from ‘Selected networks’.
Step 4: To grant access to an internet IP range, enter the address range of 131.107.2.0 to 131.107.2.255 (in CIDR format) under Firewall, Address Ranges.
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

NEW QUESTION 207
You have an Azure tenant that contains two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. In Subscription1, you deploy a virtual machine named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 uses managed disks. You need to move Server1 to Subscription2. The solution must minimize administration effort. What should you do first?

A.    Create a new virtual machine in Subscription2.
B.    In Subscription2, create a copy of the virtual disk.
C.    Create a snapshot of the virtual disk.
D.    From Azure PowerShell, run the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To move existing resources to another resource group or subscription, use the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-move-resources#move-resources

NEW QUESTION 208
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines. Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance. You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center. What should you do?

A.    Add an extension to the virtual machines.
B.    Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine.
C.    Assign tags to the virtual machines.
D.    Configure locks for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 209
You have an Azure subscription that contains two storage accounts named storagecontoso1 and storagecontoso2. Each storage account contains a queue service, a table service, and a blob service. You develop two apps named App1 and App2. You need to configure the apps to store different types of data to all the storage services on both the storage accounts. How many endpoints should you configure for each app?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    6
D.    12

Answer: A
Explanation:
Each app needs a service endpoint in each Storage Account.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

NEW QUESTION 210
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
……
You need to deploy two Azure virtual machines named VM1003a and VM1003b based on an Ubuntu Server image. The deployment must meet the following requirements:
– Provide a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.95 percent availability
– Use managed disks
What should you do from the Azure portal?

Answer:
Step 1: Open the Azure portal.
Step 2: On the left menu, select All resources. You can sort the resources by Type to easily find your images.
Step 3: Select the image you want to use from the list. The image Overview page opens.
Step 4: Select Create VM from the menu.
Step 5: Enter the virtual machine information. Select VM1003a as the name for the first Virtual machine. The user name and password entered here will be used to log in to the virtual machine. When complete, select OK. You can create the new VM in an existing resource group, or choose Create new to create a new resource group to store the VM.
Step 6: Select a size for the VM. To see more sizes, select View all or change the Supported disk type filter.
Step 7: Under Settings, make changes as necessary and select OK.
Step 8: On the summary page, you should see your image name listed as a Private image. Select Ok to start the virtual machine deployment.
Repeat the procedure for the second VM and name it VM1003b.
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/create-vm-generalized-managed

NEW QUESTION 211
You have an Azure subscription that contains a policy-based virtual network gateway named GW1 and a virtual network named VNet1. You need to ensure that you can configure a point-to-site connection from VNet1 to an on-premises computer. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add a service endpoint to VNet1.
B.    Add a public IP address space to VNet1.
C.    Create a route-based virtual network gateway.
D.    Reset GW1.
E.    Delete GW1.
F.    Add a connection to GW1.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 212
A company hosts virtual machines (VMs) in an on-premises datacenter and in Azure. The on-premises and Azure-based VMs communicate using ExpressRoute. The company wants to be able to continue regular operations if the ExpressRoute connection fails. Failover connections must use the Internet and must not require Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) support. You need to recommend a solution that provides continued operations. What should you recommend?

A.    Set up a second ExpressRoute connection.
B.    Increase the bandwidth of the existing ExpressRoute connection.
C.    Increase the bandwidth for the on-premises internet connection.
D.    Set up a VPN connection.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/hybrid-networking/expressroute-vpn-failover

NEW QUESTION 213
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Service Fabric cluster and a Service Fabric application named FabricApp. You develop and package a Service Fabric application named AppPackage. AppPackage is saved in a compressed folder named AppPackage.zip. You upload AppPackage.zip to an external store. You need to register AppPackage in the Azure subscription. What should you do first?

A.    Run the New-ServiceFabricApplication cmdlet.
B.    Repackage the application in a file named App.sfpkg.
C.    Create a new Service Fabric cluster.
D.    Copy AppPackage.zip to a blob storage account.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-package-apps#create-an-sfpkg

NEW QUESTION 214
Hotspot
Your company runs several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs). You must design a solution that implements data privacy, compliance, and data sovereignty for all storage uses in Azure. You plan to secure all Azure storage accounts by using Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to secure the data used by the VMs. Which solution should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate solutions in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/security-storage-overview

NEW QUESTION 215
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    An Azure Cosmos DB database
B.    Azure SQL Database
C.    Azure File Storage
D.    Azure Data Lake Store

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 216
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1. You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning. What is a possible cause of the Warning status?

A.    VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed.
B.    A Recovery Services vault is unavailable.
C.    VM1 has an unmanaged disk.
D.    VM1 is stopped.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

NEW QUESTION 217
Drag and Drop
You are developing Azure WebJobs. You need to recommend a WebJob type for each scenario. Which WebJob type should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate WebJob types to the correct scenarios. Each WebJob type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/webjobs-create#webjob-types

NEW QUESTION 218
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that you use for testing. VM1 is protected by Azure Backup. You delete VM1. You need to remove the backup data stored for VM1. What should you do first?

A.    Delete the storage account.
B.    Stop the backup.
C.    Modify the backup policy.
D.    Delete the Recovery Services vault.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Backup provides backup for virtual machines — created through both the classic deployment model and the Azure Resource Manager deployment model — by using custom-defined backup policies in a Recovery Services vault. With the release of backup policy management, customers can manage backup policies and model them to meet their changing requirements from a single window. Customers can edit a policy, associate more virtual machines to a policy, and delete unnecessary policies to meet their compliance requirements.
Incorrect:
Not D: You can’t delete a Recovery Services vault if it is registered to a server and holds backup data. If you try to delete a vault, but can’t, the vault is still configured to receive backup data.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/updates/azure-vm-backup-policy-management/

NEW QUESTION 219
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You deploy a Linux virtual machine named VM1 to Subscription1. You need to monitor the metrics and the logs of VM1. What should you use?

A.    The AzurePerformanceDiagnostics extension
B.    Linux Diagnostic Extension (LAD) 3.0
C.    Azure Analysis Services
D.    Azure HDInsight

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use extensions to configure diagnostics on your VMs to collect additional metric data. The basic host metrics are available, but to see more granular and VM-specific metrics, you need to install the Azure diagnostics extension on the VM. The Azure diagnostics extension allows additional monitoring and diagnostics data to be retrieved from the VM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/tutorial-monitoring

NEW QUESTION 220
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1. You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2. What should you do first?

A.    From the RSV2 blade, click Backup.
From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click Backup.
B.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup.
C.    From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery Services vault.
D.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm

NEW QUESTION 221
You have a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains an Azure Storage account named Storageaccount1 and a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Storageaccount1 contains the disk files for VM1. You apply a ReadOnly lock to RG1. What can you do from the Azure portal?

A.    Start VM1.
B.    Upload a blob to Storageaccount1.
C.    View the keys of Storageaccount1.
D.    generate an automation script for RG1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
ReadOnly allows authorized users to read a resource, but they can’t delete or update the resource. Applying this lock is similar to restricting all authorized users to the permissions granted by the Reader role.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-lock-resources

NEW QUESTION 222
A company is migrating an existing on-premises third-party website to Azure. The website is stateless. The company does not have access to the source code for the website. They do not have the original installer. The number of visitors at the website varies throughout the year. The on-premises infrastructure was resized to accommodate peaks but the extra capacity was not used. You need to implement a virtual machine scale set instance. What should you do?

A.    Use an autoscale setting to scale instances vertically.
B.    Create 100 autoscale settings per resource.
C.    Scale out by one instance when the average CPU usage of one of the instances is over 80 percent.
D.    Use Azure Monitor to create autoscale settings using custom metrics.
E.    Use an autoscale setting with unlimited maximum number of instances.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/autoscale-custom-metric

NEW QUESTION 223
You are responsible for mobile app development for a company. The company develops apps on Windows Mobile, iOS, and Android. You plan to integrate push notifications into every app. You need to be able to send users alerts from a backend server. Which two options can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Web App
B.    Azure Mobile App Service
C.    Azure SQL Database
D.    Azure Notification Hubs
E.    A Virtual Machine

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The Mobile Apps client enables you to register for push notifications with Azure Notification Hubs. The following platforms are supported:
– Xamarin Android releases for API 19 through 24 (KitKat through Nougat)
– Xamarin iOS releases for iOS versions 8.0 and later
– Universal Windows Platform
– Windows Phone 8.1
– Windows Phone 8.0 except for Silverlight applications
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service-mobile/app-service-mobile-dotnet-how-to-use-client-library

Case Study 6 – Humongous Insurance
Humongous Insurance is an insurance company that has three offices in Miami, Tokyo and Bangkok. Each office has 5.000 users.
……

NEW QUESTION 224
You need to resolve the licensing issue before you attempt to assign the license again. What should you do?

A.    From the Directory role blade, modify the directory role.
B.    From the Groups blade, invite the user accounts to a new group.
C.    From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.

Answer: C
Explanation:
License cannot be assigned to a user without a usage location specified.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-groups-resolve-problems

NEW QUESTION 225
……

Case Study 7 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The Montreal office has 2,000 employees. The Seattle office has 1,000 employees. The New York office has 200 employees. All the resources used by Contoso are hosted on-premises. Contoso creates a new Azure subscription. The Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant uses a domain named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. The tenant uses the P1 pricing tier.
……

NEW QUESTION 230
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A.    an Azure Logic App
B.    an Azure Service Bus
C.    an Azure Notification Hub
D.    an Azure Event Hub

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

NEW QUESTION 231
……

Case Study 8 – ADatum Corporation
ADatum Corporation is a financial company that has two main offices in New York and Los Angeles. ADatum has a subsidiary named Fabrikam, Inc. that shares the Los Angeles office. ADatum is conducting an initial deployment of Azure services to host new line-of-business applications and is preparing to migrate its existing on-premises workloads to Azure. ADatum uses Microsoft Exchange Online for email.
……

NEW QUESTION 237
You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A.    a multi-site listener
B.    a basic routing rule
C.    a URL path-based routing rule
D.    a basic listener

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url-route-portal

NEW QUESTION 238
……

Case Study 9 – Best For You Organics Company
Best For You Organics Company is a global restaurant franchise that has multiple locations. The company wants to enhance user experiences and vendor integrations. The company plans to implement automated mobile ordering and delivery services.
……

NEW QUESTION 245
You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A.    HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)
B.    Direct Line API
C.    Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D.    Bot Framework Portal
E.    Bot Framework Authentication

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 246
……


Download the newest PassLeader AZ-300 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

AZ-300 PDF dumps & AZ-300 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/az-300.html (250 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New AZ-300 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1f0aRTfxMz2rxKc4dy3CZjxKse4HWA3rQ

P.S. New AZ-301 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ah1U5ZfTQkd7hMRDhnN0gFL7q8qMqtUl

P.S. New AZ-302 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=11UyQ8nIk7dNcGLzvzsxJpAqqMkTkctZw


[22/May/2019 Updated] PassLeader Free New Update 210-260 Exam Questions Collection

$
0
0

New Updated 210-260 Exam Questions from PassLeader 210-260 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 210-260 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/210-260.html (509 Q&As)

Keywords: 210-260 exam dumps, 210-260 exam questions, 210-260 VCE dumps, 210-260 PDF dumps, 210-260 practice tests, 210-260 study guide, 210-260 braindumps, Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) Exam

P.S. New 210-260 IINS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpM1dfWVNVZ3Z5dzg

NEW QUESTION 491
Which adverse consequence can occur on a network without BPDU guard?

A.    The oldest switch can be elected as the root bridge.
B.    Unauthorized switches that are connected to the network can cause spanning-tree loops.
C.    Double tagging can cause the switches to experience CAM table overload.
D.    Rogue switches can be difficult to detect.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 492
Which two 802.1x features can you enable by running the IOS authentication priority command? (Choose two.)

A.    forced authorized port state
B.    Telnet authentication
C.    automatic selection
D.    Web authentication
E.    MAC authentication bypass

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 493
If a personal Firewall specifically blocks NTP, which type of blocking is the firewall performing?

A.    service
B.    file
C.    application
D.    network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 494
Which two problems can arise when a proxy firewall serves as the gateway between networks? (Choose two.)

A.    It can cause reduced throughput.
B.    It is unable to prevent diirct comertions to other networks.
C.    It can prevent content caching.
D.    It is unable to provide antivirus protection.
E.    It can ktrtf application support.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 495
What command could you implement in the firewall to conceal internal IP address?

A.    no source-route
B.    no cdp run
C.    no broadcast
D.    no proxy-arp

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 496
Which two configurations can prevent vlan hopping attack from attackers at vlan 10? (Choose two.)

A.    create vlan 99 and change native vlan on trunk to 99
B.    change native vlan on trunk to vlan 10
C.    configure host facing ports with the command ‘switchport mode access’

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 497
What aims to remove the ability to deny an action?

A.    integrity
B.    deniability
C.    accountability
D.    non-repudiation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 498
What are the direct two methods for redirecting web traffic to cisco web security? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco ISE
B.    3rd party proxies
C.    PAC file

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 499
What is a network IPS limitation?

A.    Large network deployments require numerous sensors.
B.    Unable to monitor attacks across entire network.
C.    Something not useful.
D.    Something useful.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 500
Which next-generation encryption algorithms supports four variants?

A.    sha1
B.    sha2
C.    md5
D.    hmac

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 501
For the SNMP V3 access control, how to control access of clients & managers? (Choose two.)

A.    routing filtering
B.    create access list
C.    make managers view
D.    authentication

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 502
About encryption protocol using in MPLS VPN Confidentiality …?

A.    IPsec
B.    SSL
C.    AES
D.    3DES

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 503
Why does ISE require its own certification issued by a trusted CA?

A.    ISE certificate allow guest device to validate it as a trusted network device.
B.    ISE certificate allow it to join the network security framework.
C.    It request certificates for guest device from the CA server based on its own certificate.
D.    It generate certificates for guest device based on it own certificate.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 504
Which term is most closely aligned with the basic purpose of SIEM solution?

A.    Repudation
B.    Non-Repudation
C.    Accountability

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 505
On ASA transparent mode, which two options are true? (Choose two.)

A.    In Transparent mode ASA works like a Router.
B.    In Transparent mode ASA works like a Routed HOP.
C.    In is the default mode of ASA.
D.    It conceals the existence in network from hackers.
E.    It allows a few things which was not allowed in ASA Routed mode.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 506
……


Download the newest PassLeader 210-260 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

210-260 PDF dumps & 210-260 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/210-260.html (509 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 210-260 IINS dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpM1dfWVNVZ3Z5dzg

[22/May/2019 Updated] 300-320 New Questions and Answers — Everybody Needs To Download For 100% Passing Exam

$
0
0

New Updated 300-320 Exam Questions from PassLeader 300-320 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 300-320 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-320.html (628 Q&As)

Keywords: 300-320 exam dumps, 300-320 exam questions, 300-320 VCE dumps, 300-320 PDF dumps, 300-320 practice tests, 300-320 study guide, 300-320 braindumps, Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures Exam

P.S. New 300-320 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpUjVQcjU5aFFtWVU

NEW QUESTION 608
Which two modes for deploying Cisco TrustSec are valid? (Choose two.)

A.    open
B.    high availability
C.    monitor
D.    low-impact
E.    cascade

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 609
An engineer has proposed the deployment of a Cisco ACI fabric solution to introduce automation and zero-touch operation experience to a DC network. Which type of virtualization technology is utilized by the Cisco ACI to encapsulate the traffic inside the fabric and to virtualize the physical infrastructure?

A.    STP
B.    IPsec
C.    VXLAN
D.    NSX

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 610
A customer has an exising WAN circult with capacity of 10 Mbps. The circuit has 6 Mbps of various user traffic and 5 Mbps of real-time audio traffic on average. Which two measures could be taken that avoid loss of real time traffic? (Choose two.)

A.    Increase the WAN circuit bandwidth.
B.    Police the traffic to 3.3 Mbps and allow excess traffic to be remarked to the default queue.
C.    Ensure that real time traffic is prionitized over other traffic.
D.    Configure congestion avoidance mechanism WRED within the prority queue.
E.    Police the traffic to 5 Mbps and allow excess traffic to be remarked toi the default queue.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 611
Management has chosen to implement a top-of-the-rack data center design. Which two benefits of moving to this model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    easier per rack upgrades
B.    decreased cabling costs
C.    directly connected racks in the row
D.    fewer ports required in the aggregation
E.    fewer switches to manage

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 612
During an upgrade of an existing data center, a network team must design segmentation into existing networks. Due to legacy applications, the IP addresses cannot change. Which firewall deployment model meets these requirements?

A.    routed mode
B.    multicontext mode
C.    transparent mode
D.    cluster mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 613
Management has requested that all web traffic be filtered through a proxy without the client’s knowledge. Which mode does an engineer use to design the web proxy to accomplish this task without additional configuration of the web browser?

A.    explicit mode with PAC files
B.    transparent mode without WCCP
C.    transparent mode with WCCP
D.    explicit mode without PAC files

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 614
Which Cisco technology uses the IS-IS protocol to avoid STP in the data center?

A.    FabricPath
B.    TRILL
C.    VPC
D.    VSS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 615
Which two characteristics of MSDP when designing an interdomain multicast network are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MSDP is a mechanism that allows RPs to share information about active sources.
B.    Any network utilizing iBGP or eBGP can use MSDP
C.    In the PIM-SM model, multicast sources and receivers must register with their local RP.
D.    RPs in other domains have full knowledge of sources located in other domains.
E.    The MSDP speaker periodically sends SAs that include all sources in all discovered domains.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 616
An engineer is configuring BGP as the routing protocol between the CE router of an enterprise and the PE router of the service provider. The interconnection between the CE and PE is direct and is provided through a Metro Ethernet link The engineer notices that attermpts to hijack the established eBGP peering session have been made by a network segment that is not between the eBGP peers. Which BGP mechanism can be deployed to protect the session from this type of attack?

A.    BGP outbound route filters.
B.    BGP TTL security check.
C.    BGP AS path length limiting.
D.    BGP communities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 617
An engineer is working on a design solution for a large hub-and-spoke EIGRP network. Which feature helps to make this design more stable while also reducing resource utilization?

A.    Qos
B.    Network summarization
C.    Stub routing
D.    Route filtering

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 618
A network architect is designing a VPN solution for a client with these requirements multicast supported 80% of traffic is spoke to spoke minimal configuration. Which VPN type is the best choice?

A.    VTI
B.    IPsec direct encapsulation
C.    DMVPN
D.    GRE over IPsec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 619
When designing a Data Center Interconnect solution, which two statements describe benefits of utilizing A-VPLS for Layer 2 extension? (Choose two.)

A.    Redundancy is addressed without enabling Spanning Tree Protocol in the core.
B.    The overlay of the Layer 2 connection on the Layer 3 transport hides any physical convergence.
C.    Integrated Layer 3 technology responds upon failure.
D.    A-VPLS utlzes the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series VSS feature to provide native dual-homing.
E.    A-VPLS provides flow-based load balancing over equal-cost multipath paths.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 620
An engineer is responsible for the network security design of a small branch. Which security segment does the engineer propose to host the public services of the enterprise such as DNS, email, and web?

A.    remote access VPN
B.    service provider edge
C.    public access DMZ
D.    external public network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 621
An ISP is offering two MPLS circuits to an office when one of the links fails. Which routing feature provides the fastest possible convergence to the failover ink?

A.    BFD
B.    UDLD
C.    TTL
D.    Multipath

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 622
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Data Center traffic flow characteristics from the left onto the correct traffic flow types on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 623
An office has requested to set up a backup link to the internet. Which routing protocol helps to achieve multihorming with two different ISPs?

A.    BGP
B.    IS-IS
C.    eBGP
D.    EIGRP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 624
A network engineer is evaluating an architecture that utilizes VSS for the data center module. Which two advantages of using VSS technology are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It removes the need for Hot Standby Router Profocol.
B.    It removes the need to configure redundant switches with identical policies.
C.    Each switch has a separate control plane.
D.    It is capable of supporting live migration of virtual machines as they move from one physical server to another.
E.    It adds arbitrary forwarding topologies on top of a fixed routed underlay topology.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 625
An engineer is designing an OSPF network with multiple nonbackbone areas connecled to the backbone area via a hub-and-spoke topology. Each hub-and-spoke area has a large number of spoke routers connected to the hub that is functioning as an ABR to provide better segmentation. Which two actions improve the stability of this design? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure hub-and-spoke areas as stub.
B.    Use External Type 2 metric: across the OSPF domain.
C.    Configure hub-and-spake areas as totally stubby.
D.    Implement summarization on the ABR routers of hub-and-spoke areas.
E.    Implement summarization on the ASBR routers in the backbone area.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 626
……


Download the newest PassLeader 300-320 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

300-320 PDF dumps & 300-320 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-320.html (628 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 300-320 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpUjVQcjU5aFFtWVU

[28/May/2019 Updated] New PassLeader 790q 300-101 Practice Test Guarantee 100 Percent Exam Pass

$
0
0

New Updated 300-101 Exam Questions from PassLeader 300-101 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 300-101 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-101.html (790 Q&As)

Keywords: 300-101 exam dumps, 300-101 exam questions, 300-101 VCE dumps, 300-101 PDF dumps, 300-101 practice tests, 300-101 study guide, 300-101 braindumps, Implementing Cisco IP Routing Exam

P.S. New 300-101 ROUTE dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpZEE0S2YxR3ZMUWs

>> New 300-115 SWITCH dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpV1dGa2Q3czNVNG8

>> New 300-135 TSHOOT dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpSV82OWY1cnV1Z3c

NEW QUESTION 774
Which statement about the metric calculation in EIGRP is true?

A.    The maximum delay along the path is used.
B.    The mean value of bandwidth between the source and destination is used.
C.    The minimum bandwidth between the source and destination is used.
D.    The minimum delay along the path is used.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 775
Which two piece of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two.)

A.    Whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface.
B.    Whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured.
C.    Which neighbor adjacencies are established.
D.    The EIGRP or BGP autonomous system.
E.    The length of time that a route has been known.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 776
Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Gather the facts.
B.    Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes.
C.    Implement an action plan.
D.    Monitor and verify the resolution.
E.    Analyse the results.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 777
While the packet travels from source to destination through an Internetwork, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two BEST answers.)

A.    The source and destination hardware (interface) addresses change.
B.    The source and destination hardware (interface) addresses remain constant.
C.    The source and destination IP addresses change.
D.    The source and destination IP addresses remain constant.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 778
Which difference in the packet fragmentation feature between IPv4 and IPv6 is true?

A.    Fragmentation performed by IPv4 Sender and forwarding routers IPv6 Only by the sender.
B.    There is no fragmentation in IPv6 because it uses Path MTU Discovery in order to find the smallest packet size to the destination.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 779
By default what is the maximum number of equal metric path BGP uses for load balancing?

A.    6
B.    4
C.    8
D.    16

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 780
What are two limitations of Stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)

A.    No requirement on the nature of IPv6 address assignment.
B.    Lacks in end-to-end address transparency.
C.    Gyros for all.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 781
Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)

A.    Voice VLAN
B.    SPAN source ports
C.    DTP

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 782
With PCA and PCB and there are three routers between them and a different MTU value and they want a PCA to run an application with PCB and DF is set so we have to choose …?

A.    MSS
B.    PMTU
C.    GRE
D.    DF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 783
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.)

A.    The NTP version number of the peer.
B.    The configured NTP servers.
C.    The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized.
D.    Where the clock is synchronized.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 784
You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a fully meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two.)

A.    A centralized DMVPN solution to simplify connectivity for the enterprise.
B.    A dedicated WAN distribution layer to consolidate connectivity to remote sites.
C.    A collapsed core and distribution layer to minimize costs.
D.    Multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing.
E.    Multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 785
Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue?

A.    Specify the test frequency.
B.    Enable the ICMP echo operation.
C.    Schedule the ICMP echo operation.
D.    Verify the ICMP echo operation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 786
Which technology can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch?

A.    HSRP
B.    VSS
C.    VRRP
D.    NHRP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 787
Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)

A.    DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN login.
B.    PPPoE supports a maxiumum of 10 clients per customer premise equipment.
C.    DDR is not supported.
D.    You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface.
E.    An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 788
What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? (Choose two.)

A.    It provides reliable TCP transport.
B.    It enables mulitple servers to send video streams simultaneously.
C.    It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously.
D.    It supports distributed applications.
E.    It enables multiple clients to receive video streams simultaneously.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 789
……


Download the newest PassLeader 300-101 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

300-101 PDF dumps & 300-101 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/300-101.html (790 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 300-101 ROUTE dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpZEE0S2YxR3ZMUWs

>> New 300-115 SWITCH dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpV1dGa2Q3czNVNG8

>> New 300-135 TSHOOT dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpSV82OWY1cnV1Z3c

[28/May/2019 Updated] Exercise PassLeader 634q N10-007 Exam Dumps Collection To 100 Percent Pass Exam

$
0
0

New Updated N10-007 Exam Questions from PassLeader N10-007 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader N10-007 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/n10-007.html (634 Q&As)

Keywords: N10-007 exam dumps, N10-007 exam questions, N10-007 VCE dumps, N10-007 PDF dumps, N10-007 practice tests, N10-007 study guide, N10-007 braindumps, CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam

P.S. Free N10-007 dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=18G7nZoCo1Rl5qL3FXrR-6O-5qSmfy7ty

NEW QUESTION 620
Which of the following would indicate that a circuit speed should be increased?

A.    Low latency
B.    Low bandwidth consumption
C.    High number of SIEM alerts
D.    High packet drops

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 621
A technician has installed an older IP camera as a temporary replacement for a recently failed newer one. The technician notices that when the camera’s video stream is off, the ping roundtrip time between the camera and the network DVR is consistently less than 1ms without dropped packets. When the camera video stream is turned on, the ping roundtrip time increases dramatically, and network communication is slow and inconsistent. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue in this scenario?

A.    VLAN mismatch
B.    Duplex mismatch
C.    Cat 6 RX/TX reversed
D.    Damaged cable

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 622
Wireless users have been experiencing connectivity problems. Investigation shows neighboring wireless appliances, which are not connected to the network, have been on the same 5GHz frequency to communicate. Which of the following wireless performance problem concepts defines this issue?

A.    Interference
B.    Distance limitation
C.    Signal-to-noise ratio
D.    Absorption

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 623
Which of the following BEST explains the purpose of signature management as a mitigation technique?

A.    Hardening devices
B.    Segmenting the network
C.    Detecting malicious activity
D.    Restricting user credentials

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 624
A network technician installs a web server on the firewall. Which of the following methods should the technician implement to allow access to outside users without giving access to the inside network?

A.    VLAN
B.    DMZ
C.    SNMP
D.    NTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 625
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) tasks the network engineer with protecting the network from outside attacks. Placing which of the following devices on the network perimeter would provide the MOST security for the system?

A.    Firewall
B.    NGFW
C.    Content filter
D.    IDS/IPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 626
Management has requested that a wireless solution be installed at a new office. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the network technician should do?

A.    Order equipment
B.    Create network diagrams
C.    Perform a site survey
D.    Create an SSID

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 627
A technician has deployed an additional DHCP server for redundancy. Clients in certain subnets are not receiving DHCP leases from the new DHCP server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.    The new DHCP server’s IP address was not added to the router’s IP helper list.
B.    The new DHCP server is not receiving the requests from the clients.
C.    The ARP cache of the new DHCP server needs to be updated.
D.    The ARP table on the router needs to be cleared.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 628
Greater bandwidth and availability are required between two switches. Each switch has multiple 100Mb Ethernet ports available. Which of the following should a technician implement to help achieve these requirements?

A.    Spanning tree
B.    Clustering
C.    Power management
D.    Port aggregation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629
A technician is configuring a new server with an IP address of 10.35.113.47 on the 10.35.112.0 subnet to allow for the maximum number of hosts. When configuring network settings, which of the following is the correct subnet mask?

A.    10.35.112.0/30
B.    10.35.112.0/24
C.    255.255.240.0
D.    255.255.248.0
E.    255.255.255.0

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 630
Ann, a customer, recently upgraded her SOHO Internet to gigabit fiber from cable. She was previously getting speeds around 75Mbps down and 25Mbps up. After the upgrade, Ann runs a speed test on her desktop and gets results of 1000Mbps down and 100Mbps up. A technician connects directly to the router and sees the correct 1000Mbps speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? (Choose two.)

A.    All ports should be configured for full duplex.
B.    There is a 10/100 switch on the network.
C.    The connections are using Cat 5 cable.
D.    The connections are using Cat 6 cable.
E.    There is a transceiver mismatch at the fiber termination point.
F.    Signal attenuation on the new fiber has reached the upper limits.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 631
A user reports intermittent performance issues on a segment of the network. According to the troubleshooting methodology, which of the following steps should the technician do NEXT after collecting initial information from the customer?

A.    Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B.    Establish a theory of probable cause.
C.    Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
D.    Duplicate the problem, if possible.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 632
Which of the following protocols is associated with a three-way handshake?

A.    UDP
B.    ICMP
C.    GRE
D.    TCP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 633
……


Download the newest PassLeader N10-007 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

N10-007 PDF dumps & N10-007 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/n10-007.html (634 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. Free N10-007 Exam Dumps Collection On Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=18G7nZoCo1Rl5qL3FXrR-6O-5qSmfy7ty

[30/May/2019 Updated] PassLeader Free 70-486 PDF Study Guide and VCE Dumps

$
0
0

New Updated 70-486 Exam Questions from PassLeader 70-486 PDF dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 70-486 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-486.html (291 Q&As)

Keywords: 70-486 exam dumps, 70-486 exam questions, 70-486 VCE dumps, 70-486 PDF dumps, 70-486 practice tests, 70-486 study guide, 70-486 braindumps, Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications Exam

P.S. New 70-486 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpflNtUWtkNlk3ODJFY0pqOUhqVFEwc0lrd0QtamRxUHFLLUdWZEVDaGtlQWM

NEW QUESTION 277
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The application must be exposed to external users over ports 80 and 443 and must meet the following requirements:
– Handle more than 1024 simultaneous connections
– Support Windows authentication
– Support HTTP/2 over TLS
– Include response caching
– Protect against denial-of-service attacks
You need to deploy the application to an on-premises web server.
Solution: You deploy the application to HTTP.sys.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/fundamentals/servers/httpsys?view=aspnetcore-2.1

NEW QUESTION 278
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The landing page of the application contains over 100 small JPEG images, including many images that have embedded text. Mobile device users report performance issues when loading the landing page. You debug the application and determine that the number of HTTP requests is causing the issue. You need to improve the performance of the landing page.
Solution: Update the web server to use HTTP/2.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 279
You are developing a NuGet package that will be used by applications that target multiple .NET runtime environments. You need to include NuGet package references within application project files. What should you use?

A.    a PackageReference node
B.    the packages.config file
C.    the .nupkg folder name
D.    the project.json file

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/nuget/consume-packages/package-references-in-project-files

NEW QUESTION 280
You are designing an ASP.NET Core MVC application. You need to combine two existing models to create a view. Which MVC component should you use?

A.    ViewComponent
B.    View
C.    Controller
D.    Model

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/tutorials/first-mvc-app/adding-controller?view=aspnetcore-2.1

NEW QUESTION 281
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application by using Microsoft Visual Studio Professional. You plan to deploy the app to a Microsoft Azure App Services Web App. You must be able to edit files in the web application directly without having to redeploy or use other means of connecting to the web application. You need to update the Web.config file to enable remote error messages. What should you do?

A.    Download the publishsettings file from Azure portal.
Create an FTP connection to the Azure Web App and update the file.
B.    Use Visual Studio to remotely debug and update the file.
C.    Create a Web.config transform and deploy a debug build.
D.    Use the Visual Studio Server Explorer remote view feature to update the file.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282
You develop a new ASP.NET MVC application. You use local storage to maintain state. The localStorage object’s setItem method is failing to store a value. Which two scenarios will cause the failure? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    The user has disabled local storage in the browser.
B.    The value being stored is a JavaScript array.
C.    The new Value property was used prior to calling the setItem method.
D.    The value being stored exceeds 10 MB in size.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://www.w3schools.com/html/html5_webstorage.asp
https://html.spec.whatwg.org/multipage/webstorage.html#dom-storage-setitem

NEW QUESTION 283
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application uses a SQL Server database and a SQL Server login and password. You need to ensure that the password for the SQL Server login is not stored in plain text. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_wp.exe.
B.    Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_regiis.exe.
C.    Ensure that there is a valid encryptionKey element in the web.config file.
D.    Ensure that there is a valid machineKey element in the web.config file.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://weblogs.asp.net/owscott/421063

NEW QUESTION 284
Hotspot
You are developing an ASP.NET Core Web API. API methods must use JSON Web Tokens (JWT) to authenticate the method caller. You need to implement JWT authentication. How should you complete the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.c-sharpcorner.com/article/jwt-json-web-token-authentication-in-asp-net-core/

NEW QUESTION 285
Drag and Drop
You are developing an ASP.NET Core web application that uses sensitive configuration data. You plan to develop the application locally and then deploy the application to a Microsoft Azure App Services Web App for testing and production. You must securely store sensitive configuration data and be able to share the data across multiple projects. You need to ensure that sensitive data is stored in local configuration files. Which technologies should you implement? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct environments. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/security/app-secrets?view=aspnetcore-2.1&tabs=windows

NEW QUESTION 286
Drag and Drop
You are developing an ASP.NET Core application. You plan to use YAML as the configuration language. You create a custom YAML configuration parser. You need to implement a mechanism to support reading and applying these YAML configurations. How should you complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://andrewlock.net/creating-a-custom-iconfigurationprovider-in-asp-net-core-to-parse-yaml/

NEW QUESTION 287
Hotspot
You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The web application must support older web browsers and implemented JavaSript features. You must use a polyfill to support the JavaScript Promise object in all browsers. You need to implement a built-in ASP.NET Core tag Helper to support polyfills. How should you complete the markup? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 288
You develop an ASP.NET web application that is self-hosted using Open Web Interface for .NET (OWIN) in a Microsoft Azure Worker role. The web application throws exceptions. You need to resolve the exceptions.
Solution: Change the application startup code to debug the OWIN pipeline.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
We need to install the Microsoft.Owin.Diagnostics package before we change the startup code. The Microsoft.Owin.Diagnostics package contains middleware that catches unhandled exceptions and displays an HTML page with error details.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/aspnet/overview/owin-and-katana/getting-started-with-owin-and-katana#add-owin-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 289
A company has an enterprise library that targets the full .NET framework. You must convert the library to target .NET Standard. You replace the original project file a .NET Standard project file. When you compile the library, the compiler throws the following errors:
error cs0579: Duplicate ‘System.Reflection.AssemblyCompanyAttribute’
error cs0579: Duplicate ‘System.Reflection.AssemblyVersionAttribute’
You need to resolve the errors. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Delete the bin folder and recompile the library.
B.    Add the GenerateAssemblyInfo property to the .NET Standard project file set the value to False.
C.    Add the GenerateAssemblyInfo property to the .NET Standard project file set the value to True.
D.    Delete the Properties folder and recompile the library.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 290
You plan to deploy an ASP.NET Core MVC web application to an internal server cluster that runs Kestrel on Linux. The server cluster hosts many other web applications. All applications are behind a Nginx load balancer. You need to ensure that the application meets the following requirements:
– Secure against man-in-the-middle attacks
– Allow Open ID Connect authentication
– Cache responses using HTTP caching
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Bind Kestrel to port 0.
B.    Terminate Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) in Kestrel.
C.    Configure ASP.NET Core to use forwarded headers.
D.    Enable the proxy_cache_bypass module.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: When the port number 0 is specified, Kestrel dynamically binds to an available port. When the app is run, the console window output indicates the dynamic port where the app can be reached.
C: Because requests are forwarded by reverse proxy, we must use the Forwarded Headers Middleware from the Microsoft.AspNetCore.HttpOverrides package. The middleware updates the Request.Scheme, using the X-Forwarded-Proto header, so that redirect URIs and other security policies work correctly.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/host-and-deploy/linux-nginx?view=aspnetcore-2.2
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/fundamentals/servers/kestrel?view=aspnetcore-2.2

NEW QUESTION 291
……


Download the newest PassLeader 70-486 dumps from passleader.com now! 100% Pass Guarantee!

70-486 PDF dumps & 70-486 VCE dumps: https://www.passleader.com/70-486.html (291 Q&As) (New Questions Are 100% Available and Wrong Answers Have Been Corrected! Free VCE simulator!)

P.S. New 70-486 dumps PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpflNtUWtkNlk3ODJFY0pqOUhqVFEwc0lrd0QtamRxUHFLLUdWZEVDaGtlQWM

Viewing all 1906 articles
Browse latest View live