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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about LUNs? (Choose two.)

A.    A LUN is accessed using an NFS mount.
B.    A LUN is a logical representation of a SCSI disk.
C.    LUNs are not supported on a single-node cluster.
D.    LUNs should never be created in the SVM root volume.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 2
Which three protocols are used for DAS connections? (Choose three.)

A.    SCSI
B.    FCoE
C.    NFS
D.    ATA
E.    SATA

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 3
You are asked to extend ONTAP to AWS with ONTAP Cloud. You need to deploy ONTAP Cloud in HA mode. Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in different AWS regions.
B.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in different AWS availability zones.
C.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed in private and public clouds to achieve high availability.
D.    ONTAP Cloud HA must be deployed with NPS to achieve high availability.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What are three examples of hypervisor platforms? (Choose three.)

A.    Citrix XenServer
B.    SUSE Linux
C.    Microsoft Hyper-V
D.    VMware vSphere
E.    Microsoft Exchange 2016

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 5
How are virtual LANs (VLANs) used?

A.    to combine two or more physical ports
B.    to segment a physical port into multiple logical interfaces (LIFs)
C.    to segment a network into multiple logical networks
D.    to combine two or more logical interfaces (LIFs)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
A NAS client connects to a volume that is on a different node than the LIF that it is accessing. In this scenario, the client is said to have which type of access to the volume?

A.    external
B.    round robin
C.    indirect
D.    multipath

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which ONTAP network type requires a private network?

A.    management network
B.    cluster network
C.    SP/RLM network
D.    data network

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two phrases define “server virtualization”? (Choose two.)

A.    using an application client such as Outlook to manage a mailbox
B.    running a server from a USB drive
C.    running multiple operating systems on a single host
D.    using a hypervisor to host application servers

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 9
What are two benefits of storage virtualization? (Choose two.)

A.    efficient utilization
B.    increased flexibility
C.    decreased CPU utilization
D.    decreased complexity

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You are required to provision LUN-based disk devices for a Windows cluster using ONTAP Cloud as the storage platform. Which transport would you use in this scenario?

A.    FC
B.    iSCSI
C.    FCoE
D.    NFS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
A new ONTAP system is being deployed and a volume is being provisioned that will be the destination for long-term storage of many other volumes in the production environment. Which SnapVault feature provides this capability?

A.    storage efficiency
B.    block transfer
C.    fan-in deployment
D.    disaster recovery

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
You are deploying several AltaVault appliance instances in virtualized and physical environments. In this scenario, which two connection methods you would use during the initial setup? (Choose two.)

A.    from a serial connection for physical appliances
B.    from an SSH session for physical appliances
C.    from client console for virtualized environments
D.    from an SSH session for virtualized environments

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
What are two methods used to protect the data center perimeter? (Choose two.)

A.    session authentication
B.    DDoS protection
C.    asset classification
D.    network subnetting

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 2
Your data center uses a Virtual Chassis Fabric. The ToR switches have 48 ports and each rack supports 20 servers. Each server has two ports that are configured as a LAG. You need to implement link level redundancy but you cannot use two ports on the same device for this redundancy. Which type of connection should you use to complete this task?

A.    MC-LAG
B.    RTG
C.    LAG
D.    ESI

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two statements about data center design are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    The most efficient traffic flow pattern is 50% east-west and 50% north-south.
B.    A data center that provides hosted services should scale based on customer demands.
C.    A multitier design provides better performance as the number of applications increase.
D.    An application may query several resources in response to a single user request.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company is deploying a private cloud based on OpenStack and has selected Contrail Networking as its SDN controller. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Underlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
B.    MPLS over UDP tunnels are supported.
C.    Overlay tunnels are established between virtualized and bare-metal servers.
D.    MPLS over GRE tunnels are supported.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 5
You are asked to provide a data center design proposal. The customer wants each rack to be managed as a single unit with the shortest possible cable lengths. Which deployment model meets these requirements?

A.    top of rack
B.    middle of rack
C.    middle of row
D.    end of row

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
From a network management perspective, a Virtual Chassis consisting of five physical switches will appear as how many devices?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
You are re-designing a traditional multitiered data center into a modern spine-and-leaf data center architecture. In this scenario, which two tiers are collapsed? (Choose two.)

A.    distribution
B.    WAN
C.    access
D.    core

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the Contrail vRouter? (Choose two.)

A.    It is forwarding plane that runs software on a virtualized server.
B.    It extends the network form physical routers and switches into an overlay network hosted in virtual server.
C.    It is responsible for providing the management, control, and analytics functions of the virtualized network.
D.    It provides the logically centralized control plane and management plane of the system.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two statements are correct about a VCF deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    You are allowed up to four spine devices.
B.    The fabric is managed as a single logical device.
C.    An EX4300 switch must be deployed as a spine device.
D.    You must deploy a QFX5100 as a leaf device.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You want to use the Intrusion Prevention System features of a vSRX virtual firewall to protect systems from attacks embedded in traffic. In this scenario, which three technologies would be used? (Choose three.)

A.    protocol decodes
B.    zero-day protection
C.    traffic normalization
D.    application firewall
E.    application tracking

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 11
When considering data center security, which component is often seen as unimportant but is really the first line of defense?

A.    guest access
B.    native VLAN configuration
C.    RBAC
D.    physical security

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
You are implementing a Virtual Chassis Fabric using QFX5110 devices. Which two statements are true in this scenario according to Juniper Networks recommendations? (Choose two.)

A.    Spine devices must assume the RE role.
B.    Leaf devices must have a direct link to all other leaf devices.
C.    Spine devices must assume the line card role.
D.    Leaf devices must have a direct link to all spine devices.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 77
Your company uses Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) to deploy Windows 10 to new computers. The company purchases 1,000 new computers. You need to ensure that the Hyper-V feature is enabled on the computers during the deployment. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add a task sequence step that adds a provisioning package.
B.    In a Group Policy object (GPO), from Computer Configuration, configure Application Control Policies.
C.    Add a custom command to the Unattend.xml file.
D.    Add a configuration setting to Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
E.    Add a task sequence step that runs dism.exe.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/create-a-windows-10-reference-image

NEW QUESTION 78
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Your company purchases a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to migrate the Documents folder of users to Microsoft OneDrive for Business. What should you configure?

A.    One Drive Group Policy settings
B.    Roaming User profiles
C.    Enterprise State Roaming
D.    Folder Redirection Group Policy settings

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/redirect-known-folders?redirectSourcePath=%252fen-us%252farticle%252fredirect-windows-known-folders-to-onedrive-e1b3963c-7c6c-4694-9f2f-fb8005d9ef12

NEW QUESTION 79
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. A service named Application1 is configured as shown in the exhibit:

You discover that a user used the Service1 account to sign in to Computer1 and deleted some files. You need to ensure that the identity used by Application1 cannot be used by a user to sign in to sign in to the desktop on Computer1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Solution: On Computer1, you assign Service1 the deny log on locally user right.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/deny-log-on-locally

NEW QUESTION 80
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. A service named Application1 is configured as shown in the exhibit:

You discover that a user used the Service1 account to sign in to Computer1 and deleted some files. You need to ensure that the identity used by Application1 cannot be used by a user to sign in to sign in to the desktop on Computer1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Solution: On Computer1, you assign Service1 the deny log on as a service user right.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/deny-log-on-as-a-service

NEW QUESTION 81
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to view the settings to Computer1 by Group Policy objects (GPOs) in the domain and local Group Policies. Which command should you run?

A.    gpresult
B.    secedit
C.    gpupdate
D.    gpfixup

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/gpresult

NEW QUESTION 82
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains computers that run Windows 10. You need to provide a user with the ability to remotely create and modify shares on the computers. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add the user?

A.    Power Users
B.    Remote Management Users
C.    Administrators
D.    Network Configuration Operators

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 83
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 belongs to a workgroup. You run the following commands on Computer1:
New-LocalUser -Name User1 -NoPassword
Add-LocalGroupMember User -Member User1
What is the effect of the configurations?

A.    User1 is prevented from signing in until the user is assigned additional user rights.
B.    User1 appears on the sign-in screen and can sign in without a password.
C.    User1 is prevented from signing in until an administrator manually sets a password for the user.
D.    User1 appears on the sign-in screen and must set a new password on the first sign-in attempts.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/microsoft.powershell.localaccounts/new-localuser?view=powershell-5.1

NEW QUESTION 84
You have a public computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to modify the permissions of Folder1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which NTFS permission should you assign to User1?

A.    Full Control
B.    Modify
C.    Write
D.    Read & Execute

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2008-R2-and-2008/cc754344%28v%3dws.10%29

NEW QUESTION 85
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains a user named User1. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You join Computer1 to Azure AD. You enable Remote Desktop on Computer1. User1 attempts to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop and receives the following error message: “The logon attempt failed”. You need to ensure that the user can connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop. What should you do first?

A.    In Azure AD, assign User1 the Cloud device administrator role.
B.    From the local Group Policy, modify the Allow log on through Remote Desktop Services user right.
C.    In Azure AD, assign User1 the Security administrator role.
D.    On Computer1, create a local user and add the new user to the Remote Desktop Users group.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/allow-log-on-through-remote-desktop-services

NEW QUESTION 86
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Access to the Internet is provided through the main office. The branch office contains 25 computers that run Windows 10. The computers contain small hard drives that have very little free disk space. You need to prevent the computers in the branch office from downloading updates from peers on the network. What should you do?

A.    From the Settings app, modify the Delivery Optimizations settings.
B.    Configure the network connections as metered connections.
C.    Configure the computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
D.    Configure the updates to use the Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) channel.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-branchcache

NEW QUESTION 87
Drag and Drop
You enable Windows PowerShell remoting on a computer that runs Windows 10. You need to limit which PowerShell cmdlets can be used in a remote session. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.petri.com/powershell-remoting-restricting-user-commands

NEW QUESTION 88
Hotspot
You are a network administrator at your company. A user attempts to start a computer and receives the following error message: “Bootmgr is missing”. You need to resolve the issue. You start the computer in recovery mode. Which command should you run next? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://neosmart.net/wiki/bootrec/#Bootrec_in_Windows10

NEW QUESTION 89
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. You need to log any users who take ownership of the files in Folder1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Modify the folder attributes of Folder1.
B.    Modify the Advanced Security Settings for Folder1.
C.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Audit Sensitive Privilege Use setting.
D.    From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Audit File System setting.
E.    Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://www.netwrix.com/how_to_detect_who_changed_file_or_folder_owner.html

NEW QUESTION 90
You are a network administrator at your company. The company uses an application that checks for network connectivity to a server by sending a ping request to the IPv6 address of the server replies, the application loads. A user cannot open the application. You manually send the ping request from the computer of the user and the server does not reply. You send the ping request from your computer and the server replies. You need to ensure that the ping request works from the user’s computer. Which Windows Defender firewall rule is a possible cause of the issue?

A.    File and Printer Sharing (NB-Datagram-In)
B.    File and Printer Sharing (Echo request ICMPv6-Out)
C.    File and Printer Sharing (NB-Datagram-Out)
D.    File and Printer Sharing (Echo Request ICMPv6-In)

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/windows-vista/allow-pings-icmp-echo-request-through-your-windows-vista-firewall/

NEW QUESTION 91
……


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NEW QUESTION 78
Your company uses Windows Update for Business. The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed. You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update.
Solution: From the Settings app, you clear the Give me updates for other Microsoft products when I update Windows check box.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024

NEW QUESTION 79
Your company uses Windows Update for Business. The research department has several computers that have specialized hardware and software installed. You need to prevent the video drivers from being updated automatically by using Windows Update.
Solution: From the Device Installation settings in a Group Policy object (GPO), you enable Specify search order for device driver source locations, and then you select Do not search Windows Update.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.stigviewer.com/stig/microsoft_windows_server_2012_member_server/2013-07-25/finding/WN12-CC-000024

NEW QUESTION 80
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The domain contains 500 laptops that run Windows 8.1 Professional. The users of the laptops work from home. Your company uses Microsoft Intune, the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), and Windows Configuration Designer to manage client computers. The company purchases 500 licenses for Windows 10 Enterprise. You verify that the hardware and applications on the laptops are compatible with Windows 10. The users will bring their laptop to the office, where the IT department will deploy Windows 10 to the laptops while the users wait. You need to recommend a deployment method for the laptops that will retain their installed applications. The solution must minimize how long it takes to perform the deployment. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    an in-place upgrade
B.    a clean installation by using a Windows Configuration Designer provisioning package
C.    Windows AutoPilot
D.    a clean installation and the User State Migration Tool (USMT)

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios#in-place-upgrade

NEW QUESTION 81
You have a computer named Computer5 that has Windows 10 installed. You create a Windows PowerShell script named config.ps1. You need to ensure that config.ps1 runs after feature updates are installed on Computer5. Which file should you modify on Computer5?

A.    Unattend.xml
B.    Unattend.bat
C.    SetupConfig.ini
D.    LiteTouch.wsf

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.joseespitia.com/2017/06/01/how-to-run-a-post-script-after-a-windows-10-feature-upgrade/

NEW QUESTION 82
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain and three sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Each site is associated to two subnets. Site1 contains two subnets named SubnetA and SubnetB. All the client computers in the forest run Windows 10. Delivery Optimization is enabled. You have a computer named Computer1 that is in SubnetA. From which hosts will Computer1 download updates?

A.    the computers in Site1 only
B.    any computer in the domain
C.    the computers in SubnetA only
D.    any computer on the network

Answer: C
Explanation:
Delivery Optimization allows updates from other clients that connect to the Internet using the same public IP as the target client (NAT).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-delivery-optimization

NEW QUESTION 83
You install a feature update on a computer that runs Windows 10. How many days do you have to roll back the update?

A.    5
B.    10
C.    14
D.    30

Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft has changed the time period associated with operating system rollbacks with Windows 10 version 1607, decreasing it to 10 days. Previously, Windows 10 had a 30-day rollback period.
https://redmondmag.com/articles/2016/08/04/microsoft-shortens-windows-10-rollback-period.aspx

NEW QUESTION 84
You need to assign the same deployment profile to all the computers that are configured by using Windows Autopilot. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Join the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
B.    Assign a Windows AutoPilot deployment profile to a group.
C.    Join the computers to an on-premises Active Directory domain.
D.    Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group that has dynamic membership rules and uses the operatingSystem tag.
E.    Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that is linked to a domain.
F.    Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group that has dynamic membership rules and uses the ZTDID tag.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
https://www.petervanderwoude.nl/post/automatically-assign-windows-autopilot-deployment-profile-to-windows-autopilot-devices/

NEW QUESTION 85
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. All users have computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Azure AD and managed by using Microsoft Intune. You need to ensure that you can centrally monitor the computers by using Windows Analytics. What should you create in Intune?

A.    a device configuration profile
B.    a conditional access policy
C.    a device compliance policy
D.    an update policy

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.scconfigmgr.com/2019/03/27/windows-analytics-onboarding-with-intune/

NEW QUESTION 86
Your company has a System Center Configuration Manager deployment that uses hybrid mobile device management (MDM). All Windows 10 devices are Active Directory domain-joined. You plan to migrate from hybrid MDM to Microsoft Intune standalone. You successfully run the Intune Data Importer tool. You need to complete the migration. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    In Intune, add a device enrollment manager (DEM).
B.    Change the tenant MDM authority to Intune.
C.    Assign all users Intune licenses.
D.    Create a new Intune tenant.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/migrate-hybridmdm-to-intunesa
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/migrate-prepare-intune
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/change-mdm-authority

NEW QUESTION 87
You need to meet the requirements for the MKG department users. What should you do?

A.    Assign the MKG department users the Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business.
B.    Download the APPX file for App1 from Microsoft Store for Business.
C.    Add App1 to the private store.
D.    Assign the MKG department users the Basic Purchaser role in Microsoft Store for Business.
E.    Acquire App1 from Microsoft Store for Business.

Answer: E
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/distribute-apps-from-your-private-store

NEW QUESTION 88
You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP) to protect computers that run Windows 10. You need to assess the differences between the configuration of Windows Defender ATP and the Microsoft-recommended configuration baseline. Which tool should you use?

A.    Windows Defender Security Center
B.    Windows Analytics
C.    Windows Defender ATP Power BI App
D.    Microsoft Secure Score

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/overview-secure-score

NEW QUESTION 89
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 500 computers that run Windows 10. All the computers are managed by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You need to enable co-management. What should you do first?

A.    Deploy the Microsoft Intune client.
B.    Raise the forest functional level.
C.    Upgrade Configuration Manager to Current Branch.
D.    Raise the domain functional level.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Co-management requires Configuration Manager version 1710 or later.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/overview#prerequisites

NEW QUESTION 90
You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on computers that run Windows 10. What should you install on the computers?

A.    Hyper-V
B.    Windows Defender Application Guard
C.    a guarded host
D.    containers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 91
Hotspot
Your company uses Microsoft Intune to manage Windows 10, Android, and iOS devices. Several users purchase new iPads and Android devices. You need to tell the users how to enroll their device in Intune. What should you instruct the users to use for each device? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
The Intune Company Portal app is used to enroll Android, iOS, macOS, and Windows devices.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-device-android-company-portal
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-ios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune-user-help/enroll-your-device-in-intune-macos-cp

NEW QUESTION 92
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains an Azure Log Analytics workspace. You deploy a new computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup. You need to ensure that you can use Log Analytics to query events from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    Configure the commercial ID
B.    Join Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C.    Create an event subscription
D.    Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/agent-windows

NEW QUESTION 93
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company has a Volume Licensing Agreement and uses a product key to activate Windows 10. You plan to deploy Windows 10 Pro to 200 new computers by using the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) and Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the new computers will be configured to have the correct product key during the installation. What should you configure?

A.    a WDS boot image
B.    an MDT task sequence
C.    the Device settings in Azure AD
D.    a Windows AutoPilot deployment profile

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-mdt/deploy-a-windows-10-image-using-mdt#a-href-idsec08astep-8-deploy-the-windows-10-client-image

NEW QUESTION 94
……


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NEW QUESTION 417
You are troubleshooting a port configuration. Interface e1/1 is configured by using port profiles. Which command do you run to view the actual command that were applied to interface e1/1?

A.    Show port-profile virtual usage
B.    Show run interface eth1/1 expand-port-profile
C.    Shows port-profile sync-status
D.    Show run interface eth1/1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 418
Which two effects of enabling the persistent FC ID feature are true? (Choose two.)

A.    N Ports receive the same FC IDs when they disconnect from and reconnect to any port on the same switch.
B.    The tcdomain automatically adds entries to the FC ID database when a device connects to a port.
C.    The volatile cache stores up to 4,000 entries containing the WWN to FC ID binding.
New entries overwrite the oldest entries in the cache if the cache is full.
D.    The contents of the volatile cache are discarded when a server reboots.
E.    The FC IDs used in the fcdomain are saved after you reboot the switch.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 419
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled on FC-SW1?

A.    NPIV
B.    NPV
C.    FCIP
D.    iSCSI

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 420
Refer to the exhibit. The firmware fails while using AutoInstall. What cloud cause this issue?

A.    A maximum of two active partitions is permitted when using AutoInstall.
B.    The bootflash partition exceeded 70 percent of the capacity of the flash drive.
C.    The license for the Advance Services package must be installed.
D.    The workspace partition must be at least 10 percent of the flash drive.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 421
Refer to the exhibit. Why did the configuration synchronization rollback fail?

A.    The switch profile is incorrect.
B.    The checkpoint test does not exist.
C.    The rollback patch is not empty.
D.    The yPC is not configured

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 422
Refer to the exhibit. The VEMs fail to join a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch. You determine that a system VLAN must be set on a system-uplink port profile. Which VLAN do you configure as a system VLAN?

A.    40
B.    10
C.    20
D.    30

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 423
You have a vPC that is in a blocking state. Which issue can cause this problem?

A.    You have a MAC address filter applied.
B.    You have Bridge Assurance enabled on the vPC.
C.    VLANs are missing from the peer link.
D.    You have a Type 1 Configuration Element Mismatch.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 424
Refer to the exhibit. No OSPF neighborship exists between N5K-1 and N7K-1. Which configuration resolves this issue?

A.    (config)# router ospf 1
(config-router)# network 192.168.103.152 255.255.255.252 area 0
B.    (config)# ip router ospf 1 area 0
C.    (config)# router ospf 1
(config-router)# network 192.168.103.152 0.0.0.3 area 0
D.    (config-rf)# ip router ospf 1 area 0

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 425
Which connectivity topology is valid for Cisco UCS B-Series Servers?

A.    a standalone Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect that has a dual uplink from the IOM to the Fabric Interconnect
B.    dual Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects without L1-L1 and L2-L2 connections
C.    dual Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects without 12-12 connections
D.    IOM bypass

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 426
You are troubleshooting LACP issues on a Cisco Nexus platform. Which two LACP modes can you view by using the show lacp interface command? (Choose two.)

A.    passive
B.    active
C.    standby
D.    auto-negotiate
E.    on

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 427
You are configuring a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch. Which configuration can be implemented for VXLAN BGP EVPN?

A.    VXLAN BGP EVPN by using an NVE interface in a default VRF.
B.    RACLs on the Layer 3 uplinks for the VXLAN traffic.
C.    QoS classification for the VXLAN traffic on all of the interfaces.
D.    DHCP snooping on the VXLAN VLANs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 428
Refer to the exhibit. You are troubleshooting a vPC+ configuration issue. Which reason could cause the issue?

A.    The peer-keepalive destination must match on each leaf switch.
B.    The FabricPath switch ID between the leaf switches must be the same.
C.    The spanning tree is not used in Cisco FabricPath, so the command on port channel 1 must be removed.
D.    The spanning tree port type on port channel 1 must be set to trunk.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 429
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco UCS Manager reports that the number of disks assigned to a server exceeds the number of available disk slots. What could cause this issue?

A.    The fault detection tests on the disk drive failed.
B.    Communication between the fabric interconnects failed.
C.    Communication between Cisco UCS Manager and the server failed.
D.    The Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is connected incorrectly to the fabric interconnects.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 430
You configure two external Layer 3 networks on the same node by using BGP. The network fails to establish BGP adjacencies. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?

A.    Explicitly define the loopback addresses on the node.
B.    Use OSPF to create a peer that uses external networks.
C.    Configure the router ID to use the interface IP address used to establish the BGP connection.
D.    Configure the router ID to use the loopback interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/basic-config/b_ACI_Config_Guide/b_ACI_Config_Guide_chapter_0110.pdf

NEW QUESTION 431
……


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NEW QUESTION 130
Your company has an Azure subscription that contains the following unused resources:
– 20 user accounts in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
– Five groups in Azure AD
– 10 public IP addresses
– 10 network interfaces
You need to reduce the Azure costs for the company.
Solution: You remove the unused public IP addresses.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-cost-recommendations#reduce-costs-by-deleting-or-reconfiguring-idle-virtual-network-gateways

NEW QUESTION 131
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A support plan solution that gives you best practice information, health status and notifications, and 24/7 access to billing information at the lowest possible cost is a Standard support plan.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Developer
C.    Basic
D.    Premier

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/

NEW QUESTION 132
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines. You need to ensure that the services running on the virtual machines are available if a single data center fails.
Solution: You deploy the virtual machines to two or more resource groups.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/regions-and-availability

NEW QUESTION 133
In which Azure support plans can you open a new support request?

A.    Premier and Professional Direct only.
B.    Premier, Professional Direct, and Standard only.
C.    Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, and Developer only.
D.    Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, Developer, and Basic.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/

NEW QUESTION 134
What is guaranteed in an Azure Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A.    uptime
B.    feature availability
C.    bandwidth
D.    performance

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/legal/sla/summary/

NEW QUESTION 135
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
An Azure service is available to all Azure customers when it is in public preview.

A.    No change is needed.
B.    private preview
C.    development
D.    an Enterprise Agreement (EA) subscription

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.neowin.net/news/several-more-azure-services-now-available-in-private-public-preview/

NEW QUESTION 136
Your company has 10 departments. The company plans to implement an Azure environment. You need to ensure that each department can use a different payment option for the Azure services it consumes. What should you create for each department?

A.    a reservation
B.    a subscription
C.    a resource group
D.    a container instance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 137
Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each department will be managed by a department administrator. You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    multiple subscriptions
B.    multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories
C.    multiple regions
D.    multiple resource groups

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 138
A company has the requirement to have an automated process in place which would upload logs to an Azure SQL database every week. Reports would then be generated from the SQL database. Which of the following would you use for this requirement?

A.    The AzCopy tool
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    Azure HDInsight
D.    Data Migration Assistant

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use the Azure Data Factory to create a pipeline that can be used to copy data. Below is an excerpt from the Microsoft documentation on the connector for SQL server.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/connector-sql-server

NEW QUESTION 139
A company is planning on deploying an application onto Azure. The application will be based on the .Net core programming language. The application would be hosted using Azure Web apps. Below is part of the various requirements for the application:
– Gives the ability for the testing team to view the different components of an application and see the calls being made between the different application components
– Helps business analyse how many users actually return to the application
– Ensuring IT administrators get alerts based on critical conditions being met in the application
Which of the following service would be best suited for fulfilling the requirement of “Helps business analyse how many users actually return to the application”?

A.    Application Insights
B.    Azure Service Health
C.    Azure Advisor
D.    Azure Policies

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/usage-retention

NEW QUESTION 140
A company wants to deploy an application to Azure. The application has the below requirements:
– Give the ability to install and provide access to the full .Net framework
– Allow administrative access to the operating system
– Provide a level of redundancy if an Azure region fails
Solution: You decide to deploy 2 Azure Virtual Machines in 2 separate regions. And then you create a Traffic Manager Profile
Does this solution meet the requirement?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Yes, this will meet all the requirements. Since you are using Azure Virtual Machines, IT administrators can get the required access. You can also then get the required access to the underlying software including the .Net framework. Using a Traffic Manager profile along with the failover routing policy can ensure the requirement for redundancy is fulfilled.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview

NEW QUESTION 141
A team has an Azure CosmosDB account. A solution needs to be in place to generate an alert from Azure Log Analytics when a query request charge exceeds 40 units more than 10 times during a 10-minute window. Which of the following would you recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    Create a search query to identify when the requestCharge_s exceeds 40.
B.    Create a search query to identify when the requestCharge_s exceeds 10.
C.    Create a search query to identify when the duration_s exceeds 10.
D.    Configure a period of 10 and a frequency of 10.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/logging

NEW QUESTION 142
Our team needs to deploy a Virtual machine that will host a SQL Server. The Virtual machine will have 2 data disks, one for the log file and the other for the data files. You need to recommend a caching policy for each disk. Which of the following would you recommend for the data disk containing the logs?

A.    None
B.    ReadOnly
C.    WriteOnly
D.    ReadWrite

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-sql-performance

NEW QUESTION 143
A company has setup an Azure subscription and an Azure tenant. You need to provide the development team to be able to start and stop Virtual Machines. The access needs to be granted on specific occasions only. You need to ensure the permission gets assigned and use the principle of least privilege. You also need to minimize costs. Which of the following security feature would you use for the requirement?

A.    Conditional Access policy
B.    Azure Policies
C.    Just in time VM access
D.    Privileged Identity Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
With Privileged Identity Management, you can implement just in time privileges for Azure resources.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 144
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Windows Event Logs?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-windows-events

NEW QUESTION 145
Hotspot
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 146
Drag and Drop
Match the Azure Cloud Services benefit to the correct description. (To answer, drag the appropriate benefit from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each benefit may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/mt422582.aspx
https://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/cloud-disaster-recovery-cloud-DR
http://www.siasmsp.com/the-benefit-of-scalability-in-cloud-computing-2/
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-cloud-computing/

NEW QUESTION 147
Hotspot
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 web apps. To which URL should you connect to manage all the Azure resources? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 148
Drag and Drop
Match the Azure service to the correct description. (To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/sql-database/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-introduction

NEW QUESTION 149
A company is planning on deploying an Azure Web App to 2 regions. One of the key requirements is to ensure that the web app is always running if an Azure region fails. You need to ensure deployment costs are minimized. Which of the following service would you include in the deployment of the solution?

A.    Azure Functions
B.    Azure Traffic Manager
C.    Azure Application Gateway
D.    Azure Load Balancer

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview

NEW QUESTION 150
A company has deployed several applications across Windows and Linux Virtual machines in Azure. Log Analytics are being used to send the required data for alerting purposes for the Virtual Machines. You need to recommend which tables need to be queried for security related queries. Which of the following would you query for events from Linux system logging?

A.    Azure Activity
B.    Azure Diagnostics
C.    Event
D.    Syslog

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-syslog

NEW QUESTION 151
A company is planning on deploying a stateless based application based on microservices using the Azure Service Fabric service. You need to design the infrastructure that would be required in the Azure Service Fabric service. Which of the following should you consider? (Choose two.)

A.    The number of node types in the cluster.
B.    The properties for each node type.
C.    The network connectivity.
D.    The service tier.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-cluster-capacity

NEW QUESTION 152
……


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NEW QUESTION 121
Your company uses Microsoft System Center ?Service Manager on its on-premises network. You plan to deploy several services to Azure. You need to recommend a solution to push Azure service health to Service Manager. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Notification Hubs
B.    Azure Event Hubs
C.    IT Service Management Connector (ITSM)
D.    Application Insights Connector

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/itsmc-overview

NEW QUESTION 122
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains several administrative user accounts. You need to recommend a solution to identify which administrative user accounts have NOT signed in during the previous 30 days. Which service should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure AD Identity Protection
B.    Azure Activity Log
C.    Azure Advisor
D.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 123
Your company plans to publish APIs for its services by using Azure API Management. You discover that service responses include the AspNet-Version header. You need to recommend a solution to remove AspNet-Version from the response of the published APIs. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    a new product
B.    a modification to the URL scheme
C.    a new policy
D.    a new revision

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/transform-api

NEW QUESTION 124
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure WebJob that runs the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 125
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create a Logic App to run the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126
You manage on-premises networks and Azure virtual networks. You need a secure private connection between the on-premises networks and the Azure virtual networks. The connection must offer a redundant pair of cross connections to provide high availability. What should you recommend?

A.    ExpressRoute
B.    Azure Load Balancer
C.    virtual network peering
D.    VPN Gateway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 127
You use a virtual network to extend an on-premises IT environment into the cloud. The virtual network has two virtual machines (VMs) that store sensitive data. The data must only be available using internal communication channels. Internet access to those VMs is not permitted. You need to ensure that the VMs cannot access the Internet. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Network Interface (NIC)
B.    Source Network Address Translation (SNAT)
C.    Azure ExpressRoute
D.    Network Security Groups (NSG)

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 128
Your company plans to migrate its on-premises data to Azure. You need to recommend which Azure services can be used to store the data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Encrypt all data while at rest.
– Encrypt data only by using a key generated by the company.
Which two possible services can you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Table storage
B.    Azure Backup
C.    Azure Blob storage
D.    Azure Queue storage
E.    Azure Files

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-service-encryption-customer-managed-keys

NEW QUESTION 129
You architect a solution that calculates 3D geometry from height-map data. You have the following requirements:
– Perform calculations in Azure.
– Each node must communicate data to every other node.
– Maximize the number of nodes to calculate multiple scenes as fast as possible.
– Require the least amount of effort to implement.
You need to recommend a solution. Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a render farm that uses Azure Batch.
B.    Enable parallel file systems on Azure.
C.    Enable parallel task execution on compute nodes.
D.    Create a render farm that uses virtual machine (VM) scale sets.
E.    Create a render farm that uses virtual machines (VMs).

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 130
Hotspot
You have an Azure App Service Web App that includes Azure Blob storage and an Azure SQL Database instance. The application is instrumented by using the Application Insights SDK. You need to design a monitoring solution for the web app. Which Azure monitoring services should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate Azure monitoring services in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 131
Drag and Drop
An organization has an on-premises server that runs Windows Server 2003. The server hosts an IIS- based stateless web application that uses forms authentication. The application consists of classic Active Server Pages (ASP) pages and third-party components (DLLs) that are registered in the Windows registry. The deployment process for the web application is manual and is prone to errors. The deployment process makes it difficult to roll out updates, scale out, and recover after failures. You need to design a modernization approach for the web application that meets the following requirements:
– Improve the deployment process.
– Ensure that the application can run in the cloud.
– Minimize changes to application code.
– Minimize administrative effort required to implement the modernization solution.
What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct approaches. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 132
A company deploys Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to synchronize identity information from their on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts , credential hashes for authentication (password sync), and group membership. The company plans to deploy several Windows and Linux virtual machines (VMs) to support their applications. The VMs have the following requirements:
– Support domain join, LDAP read, LDAP bind, NTLM and Kerberos authentication, and Group Policy.
– Allow users to sign in to the domain using their corporate credentials and connect remotely to the VM by using Remote Desktop.
You need to support the VM deployment. Which service should you use?

A.    Azure AD Domain Services
B.    Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
C.    Azure AD Managed Service Identity
D.    Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure AD Domain Services provides managed domain services such as domain join, group policy, LDAP, Kerberos/NTLM authentication that are fully compatible with Windows Server Active Directory.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview

NEW QUESTION 133
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers. You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You create an Azure virtual network, public IP address, and load balancer. Then add virtual machines (VMs) to the solution and deploy individual containers on them.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead you should deploy each application to an Azure Container instance.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/standard/modernize-with-azure-and-containers/modernize-existing-apps-to-cloud-optimized/deploy-existing-net-apps-as-windows-containers

NEW QUESTION 134
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers. You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You deploy each application to an Azure Container instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Docker Containers are the global standard and are natively supported in Azure, offering enterprises an interesting and flexible way to migrate legacy apps for both future proofing and cost benefits. Containers are modular and portable. Docker containers are supported on any server operating system (Linux and Windows), in any major public cloud (Microsoft Azure, Amazon AWS, Google, IBM), and in on-premises and private or hybrid cloud environments.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/standard/modernize-with-azure-and-containers/modernize-existing-apps-to-cloud-optimized/deploy-existing-net-apps-as-windows-containers

NEW QUESTION 135
Drag and Drop
You manage a solution in Azure. The solution is performing poorly. You need to recommend tools to determine causes for the performance issues. What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate monitoring solutions to the correct scenarios. Each monitoring solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Metrics in Azure Monitor are stored in a time-series database which is optimized for analyzing time-stamped data. This makes metrics particularly suited for alerting and fast detection of issues.
Box 2: Log data collected by Azure Monitor is stored in a Log Analytics workspace, which is based on Azure Data Explorer. Logs in Azure Monitor are especially useful for performing complex analysis across data from a variety of sources.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-platform
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-platform-logs

NEW QUESTION 136
Hotspot
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services domain and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Employees are requires to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement an identity provider. You need provide guidance on the different identity providers. How should you describe each identity provider? (To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials. You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed

NEW QUESTION 137
You manage a solution in Azure. You must collect usage data including MAC addresses from all devices on the network. You need to recommend a monitoring solution. What should you recommend?

A.    Activity Log Analytics
B.    Azure Network Security Group Analytics
C.    Network Performance Monitor
D.    Azure Application Gateway Analytics
E.    Azure Wire Data

Answer: B
Explanation:
A network security group (NSG) includes rules that allow or deny traffic to a virtual network subnet, network interface, or both. When you enable diagnostic logging for an NSG, you can log the following categories of information:
– Event: Entries are logged for which NSG rules are applied to VMs, based on MAC address. The status for these rules is collected every 60 seconds.
– Rule counter: Contains entries for how many times each NSG rule is applied to deny or allow traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-nsg-manage-log

NEW QUESTION 138
A partner manages on-premises and Azure environments. The partner deploys an on-premises solution that needs to use Azure services. The partner deploys a virtual appliance. All network traffic that is directed to a specific subnet must flow through the virtual appliance. You need to recommend solutions to manage network traffic. Which two options should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure Azure Traffic Manager
B.    Implement an Azure virtual network
C.    Configure a routing table with forced tunneling
D.    Implement Azure ExpressRoute

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Forced tunneling lets you redirect or “force” all Internet-bound traffic back to your on-premises location via a Site-to-Site VPN tunnel for inspection and auditing. This is a critical security requirement for most enterprise IT policies. Without forced tunneling, Internet-bound traffic from your VMs in Azure always traverses from Azure network infrastructure directly out to the Internet, without the option to allow you to inspect or audit the traffic. Forced tunneling in Azure is configured via virtual network user-defined routes.
D: ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft cloud over a private connection facilitated by a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure, Office 365, and Dynamics 365. Connectivity can be from an any-to-any (IP VPN) network, a point-to-point Ethernet network, or a virtual cross-connection through a connectivity provider at a co- location facility. ExpressRoute connections do not go over the public Internet. This allows ExpressRoute connections to offer more reliability, faster speeds, lower latencies, and higher security than typical connections over the Internet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-forced-tunneling-rm
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-introduction

NEW QUESTION 139
……


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NEW QUESTION 169
An office has a network that has all computers connected to two switches. The switches are connected with a fiber cable. The computers and switches are all located in the same building. Which of the following network types does this describe?

A.    WAN
B.    PAN
C.    LAN
D.    MAN

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 170
Joe, a user, recently purchased a new multifunction printer and attempted to install it himself. He informed a technician that the printer is on his list of printers, but he is unable to print. The technician sees that the printer is listed as a generic printer under Devices and Printers. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Reboot the computer into safe mode and try to print a test page.
B.    Download the correct drivers from the manufacturer’s website and install them.
C.    Unplug the USB cable from the printer and try another USB slot on the PC.
D.    Set the printer as the default within the device properties.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 171
A user’s smartphone has been slow recently. A technician sees the phone was purchased two months ago, and it is top of the line. About a month ago, a new OS update was installed. To address the issue, the technician runs a hardware diagnostic on the device, and it reports no problems. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the performance issue on the device?

A.    Too many applications are running updates.
B.    The device is currently running in airplane mode.
C.    The internal memory is failing on the device.
D.    The OS update is too resource intensive for the device.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 172
Ann, a user, reports that after setting up a new WAP in her kitchen she is experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST?

A.    Channels
B.    Frequency
C.    Antenna power level
D.    SSID

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 173
A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.    Check for firmware updates.
B.    Configure extended display mode.
C.    Replace the external monitor.
D.    Adjust the laptop’s BIOS settings.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 174
A technician needs to call a user’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user’s mobile device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?

A.    Long-term evolution
B.    Near-field communication
C.    Radio frequency ID
D.    Z-wave

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 175
About one week ago, access to files on a network server became significantly slower. Today, network files are completely unavailable. A technician is able to make a remote connection to the server. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A.    RAID 5 array
B.    NIC configuration
C.    Available storage space
D.    RAM utilization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 176
An employee’s mobile device no longer charges, and the employee believes the battery is bad. A technician tests the mobile device and finds it will charge on a wireless charging pad but not when it is connected to a charging cable. Other devices charge without issue when the cable is used. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to resolve the issue?

A.    Clean out the charging port on the device.
B.    Replace the mobile device’s battery.
C.    Issue a new charging cable to the employee.
D.    Send the device for service and give the employee a loaner.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 177
A customer contacts the help disk stating a laptop does not remain charged for more than 30 minutes and will not charge more than 15%. Which of the following components are the MOST likely causes the issue? (Choose three.)

A.    LCD power inverter
B.    AC adapter
C.    Battery
D.    Processor
E.    VGA card
F.    Motherboard
G.    Backlit keyboard
H.    Wireless antenna

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following connects a PC to its default gateway?

A.    NIC
B.    Switch
C.    Router
D.    Cable modem

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 179
Which of the following devices can utilize VLANs to secure networks?

A.    Switch
B.    Hub
C.    Repeater
D.    Bridge

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180
After upgrading a smartphone’s OS, Joe, a user, reports the smartphone no longer connects to his automobile automatically when near it, Joe, restarts the smartphone, but the problem persists. Which of the following should a technician do NEXT to restore the previous functionality?

A.    Connect the smartphone to the automobile via USB.
B.    Reenable the smartphone’s Bluetooth radio.
C.    Perform a rollback of the smartphone’s OS.
D.    Pair the smartphone with the automobile.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 181
Joe, a user, sets up an IMAP connection on his smartphone to connect to webmail. Joe is able to view email, but he receives an error message when trying to send a message. When viewing the mail client’s configuration, Joe sees a valid SMTP server and port. Which of the following should Joe check NEXT to resolve the issue?

A.    Configure the email account as a POP3 connection.
B.    Ensure the SSL/TLS option is being used.
C.    Check that the account password is still valid.
D.    Make sure the smartphone is not in airplane mode.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 182
A user is connected to a docking station with an optical drive and is trying to back up personal files to removable media, but is encountering write errors. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of the errors?

A.    The disk has already been finalized.
B.    The files are encrypted.
C.    There is a corrupt file on the hard drive.
D.    The files are not compatible with the type of disk used.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 183
A technician is configuring a new web server and must have over 10TB of fault-tolerant storage, while minimizing the number of failure points. The applications on the server also require the highest performance available. Which of the following configurations would the technician MOST likely select?

A.    RAID 0 with 1500rpm 15TB drives
B.    RAID 1 with 1000rpm 8TB drives
C.    RAID 5 with 7200rpm 5TB drives
D.    RAID 10 with 5400rpm 6TB drives

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 184
A user has reported application connectivity problems to the network administrator. The network administrator knows there have been firewall configuration changes recently by a security vendor and believes the issue could be related to a port being closed on the firewall. Which of the following should the network administrator do NEXT?

A.    See if the same application fails on another workstation.
B.    Go into the firewall and open the port.
C.    Verify system functionality on the user’s workstation.
D.    Document the issue for future reference.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 185
Joe, a user, reports that his new smart wearable device is not synchronizing to his mobile device. Both devices are powered on, but the mobile device fails to read the data from the wearable. Which of the following will MOST likely fix this issue?

A.    Pair the devices.
B.    Set the SSID.
C.    Update the smart wearable device firmware.
D.    Enable NFC.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 186
A technician is troubleshooting a WiFi issues with a laptop user in a corporate office. The user can connect to web pages without trouble; however, the user cannot connect to the email server or print a locally stored document to the network printer. The technician cannot ping the mail server or the network printer. No other users are experiencing this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A.    The laptop has an APIPA address.
B.    The laptop is configured to the wrong default gateway.
C.    The laptop is connected to the guest WiFi.
D.    The laptop is configured with a static IP.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 187
Which of the following cloud computing concepts facilities automated server deployment?

A.    NaaS
B.    IaaS
C.    PaaS
D.    SaaS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 188
Which of the following connector types can be plugged into a device both right-side up and upside down?

A.    USB
B.    USB-C
C.    Mini-USB
D.    Micro-USB

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 189
A network administrator would like to increase network bandwidth to 1Gbps between two office buildings that are 0.5mi (805m) apart. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A.    Fiber
B.    Coaxial
C.    Plenum
D.    Cat 6

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 190
A user is experiencing issues synchronizing a smartphone. The user is able to connect to individual services, but each requires a different password. Which of the following needs to be configured to allow the user to access web services securely with a unique password?

A.    SIM
B.    SMB
C.    SSL
D.    SSO

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 191
An end user is unable to connect to the network, and a technician has visually verified the lights on the back of the PC are active and there is no physical damage to the Ethernet jack. Which of the following tools should the technician use to continue troubleshooting the connection?

A.    Punchdown tool
B.    Tone generator and probe
C.    Cable tester
D.    Crimper

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 192
The graphics department has an issue with printing certain files. The printer does not print the complete image on larger files. A technician verifies the network speed of the printer is set to 1GB and that regular text files print without issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem?

A.    The printer needs more RAM.
B.    The print server is timing out.
C.    The users are not printing in post-script mode.
D.    The printer network connection is set to half duplex.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 193
……


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NEW QUESTION 163
Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless security protocol?

A.    AES
B.    WPA
C.    WPA2
D.    WEP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 164
Joe, a customer, calls a technician to report a remote computer is demonstrating erratic behavior while he is working on it. The technician verifies the files and directories. Joe is working on locally cannot be opened in any application, and the computer is running extremely slow. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    Files disappearing.
B.    File permission changes.
C.    Application crash.
D.    Too many startup items.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 165
Corporate management is concerned about the security of the company’s mobile phones, in the event they are lost or stolen. Management instructs the IT staff to ensure the data on the devices is not accessible by unauthorized users. Which of the following would provide the BEST level of protection in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Use full device encryption.
B.    Enable a pattern lock.
C.    Implement remote wipe features.
D.    Use device lockout policies.
E.    Require complex administrator passwords.
F.    Disable unknown application installations.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 166
A technician repaired a laptop for a customer. The customer then complained the repair took too long and questioned the steps the technician took to fix the problem. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Provide documentation of the repair to the customer.
B.    Allow the customer to voice concerns and post the story to social media later.
C.    Inform the customer the job is done and return to the office.
D.    Defend each step and why it was necessary.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 167
A user is attempting to install an application and receives an error stating there is not enough space to install the application. Which of the following did the user overlook?

A.    Installation method
B.    System requirements
C.    OS compatibility
D.    File permissions

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 168
Ann, an end user, is working with highly regulated data and often notices the high volume of traffic in her work area. Ann requests help with limiting the exposure of data as people walk by. Which of the following security measures should be used?

A.    Biometric device
B.    Common access card
C.    Cable lock
D.    Privacy screen
E.    Mantrap

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 169
A SOHO technician needs to upgrade two computers quickly and is not concerned about retaining user settings. The users currently have Windows 8 and want to upgrade to Windows 10. Which of the following installation methods would the technician MOST likely use to accomplish this quickly?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Remote network installation
C.    In-place upgrade
D.    Clean installation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 170
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines, the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to accomplish this task?

A.    Drill
B.    Hammer
C.    Low-level format
D.    Degaussing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 171
A corporate network was recently infected by a malicious application on a flash drive that downloaded sensitive company files and injected a virus, which spread onto the network. Which of the following best practices could have prevented the attack?

A.    Implementing strong passwords
B.    Changing default credentials
C.    Disabling AutoRun
D.    Removing Guest account
E.    Encrypting data

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 172
Which of the following technologies can be utilized in a wireless network environment to provide secure SSO access for WiFi and network resources?

A.    WPA2
B.    AES
C.    MAC filtering
D.    RADIUS
E.    WPS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 173
A technician has installed a second monitor for a customer, but the desktop font sizes do not match. Which of the following display settings should be technician adjust to correct this issue?

A.    Resolution
B.    Refresh rate
C.    Extended monitor
D.    Color depth

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174
After a security audit, a technician is tasked with implementing new measures to help secure company workstations. The new policy states that all workstations must be signed off at night, a password is necessary to boot the computer, and encryption must be enabled. Which of the following features should the technician implement to BEST meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A.    Screen locks
B.    Screensaver passwords
C.    UEFI passwords
D.    Login time restrictions
E.    Strong passwords
F.    Multifactor authentication
G.    BitLocker
H.    Credential Manager
I.    Smart card
J.    Biometric authentication

Answer: ABG

NEW QUESTION 175
A new business will be using credit cards in a physical location as well as its web presence. Which of the following does the business need?

A.    PHI certification
B.    PCI compliance
C.    POTS implementation
D.    PII filtering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 176
A company’s security policy does not allow USB drives to be available in workstations. However, an exception needs to be made for a user. The network administrator changes the policy for the user. Which of the following commands should the administrator run on the user’s workstation?

A.    chkdsk
B.    netstat
C.    gpupdate
D.    diskpart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 177
A user’s computer is suspected of hosting illegal files. The IT department has removed the computer and placed it in a secured, cypher-locked room, where it will remain until the local authorities arrive. Which of the following actions should the IT department perform NEXT?

A.    Preserve data integrity.
B.    Identify violations of acceptable use.
C.    Collect evidence of illegal activity.
D.    Report through proper channels.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following would a technician use to store memory chips from a laptop safely after an upgrade?

A.    Mylar bags
B.    Cardboard boxes
C.    Antistatic containers
D.    Paper envelopes

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 179
A systems administrator has discovered a folder on the server with numerous inappropriate pictures and videos, which is in violation of the company’s AUP. Which of the following would be the NEXT appropriate act?

A.    Promptly notify the administrator’s immediate supervisor.
B.    Rename the folder on the server, and notify the information security officer.
C.    Move the folder to another location on the server, and notify the local authorities.
D.    Ask the owner to move the files from the server to a local computer.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180
A technician is disposing of computer hardware that contains PHI. The drive must be reusable. Which of the following methods should be used?

A.    Degauss
B.    Drive wipe
C.    Standard format
D.    Low-level format

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 181
Which of the following provide the MOST security for PCs and mobile devices? (Choose two.)

A.    Access control lists
B.    Multifactor authentication
C.    Organizational unit
D.    Trusted software sources
E.    Data loss prevention
F.    Pre-shared key

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 182
A network administrator needs to be able to securely connect to a local router from within the office. Which of the following protocols should the administrator ensure is enabled on the router?

A.    RDP
B.    SSH
C.    TFTP
D.    HTTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 183
A customer purchased a 3TB HDD to use with a Windows 7 PC and wants to have letter “J” assigned only to the drive. Which of the following types of partitioning should be performed to give the customer full use of the 3TB drive?

A.    GPT
B.    Dynamic
C.    Basic
D.    Extended

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 184
Users notify the help desk of an email that was just received. The email came from the help desk’s email address and asked the users to click on an embedded link. This email is BEST described as ____.

A.    phishing
B.    zombie
C.    whaling
D.    spoofing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 185
During the firmware upgrade of a web server, a power outage occurred. The outage caused a failure within the upgrade. Which of the following plans must be implemented to revert back to the most recent version of the firmware?

A.    Backout plan
B.    Contingency plan
C.    Alternative plan
D.    Backup plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 186
An office manager emails a technical support contractor about a new desktop for one of the workers. The office manager provides a specific configuration for the desktop. The technician notes the request will require the purchase of a new system. New system purchases are not in the scope of the support agreement. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Create a risk analysis report for review.
B.    Submit a change order for approval.
C.    Insist the worker accepts the standard desktop.
D.    Document the request and place the order.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 187
Which of the following installation methods will allow a technician to resolve issues that may arise while the installation is being performed?

A.    Unattended installation
B.    Remote installation
C.    Repair installation
D.    Image deployment installation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 188
A new company policy states that all end-user access to network resources will be controlled based on the users’ roles and responsibilities within the organization. Which of the following security concepts has the company just enabled?

A.    Certificates
B.    Least privilege
C.    Directory permissions
D.    Blacklists

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 189
A technician receives a phone call regarding ransomware that has been detected on a PC in a remote office. Which of the following steps should the technician take FIRST?

A.    Disconnect the PC from the network.
B.    Perform an antivirus scan.
C.    Run a backup and restore.
D.    Educate the end user.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 190
A user calls a technician to report issues when logging in to a vendor’s website. The technician is able to log in successfully before going to the office. However, the technician is unable to log in when in the user’s office. The user also informs the technician of strange pop-up notifications. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these issues? (Choose two.)

A.    System files have been deleted.
B.    Proxy settings are configured improperly.
C.    The OS has been updated recently.
D.    There are disabled services on the vendor website.
E.    Program file permissions have changed recently.
F.    There is a rogue anti-malware program.

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 191
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A.    Protects against accidental static discharge.
B.    Protects against dust/dirt contamination.
C.    Protects against accidental scratches.
D.    Protects against accidental water damage.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 192
Which of the following is a reason to use WEP over WPA?

A.    Device compatibility
B.    Increased security
C.    TACACS
D.    Multifactor authentication

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 193
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
An administrator is using vSphere Web Client to configure the firewall to allow specific third-party application SSH access to an ESXi Host. What is the most secure way to configure the firewall rule?

A.    Specify remote IP subnet range in IP List.
B.    Use Allow connection from any IP address.
C.    Enable lockdown mode.
D.    Disable the firewall.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which vSphere feature is designed to distribute space usage and I/O load across multiple datastores?

A.    Storage Policies
B.    vStorage API for Array Integration
C.    Storage I/O Control
D.    vSphere Storage DRS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two features should an administrator use to protect a VMware vCenter Server Appliance from host and hardware failures? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware Distributed Power Management
B.    vCenter High Availability
C.    vSphere High Availability
D.    vSphere Fault Tolerance
E.    VMware vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 4
Which feature allows a vSphere administrator to reduce power consumption on a cluster?

A.    WOL
B.    BMC
C.    DPM
D.    DNS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
How is vCenter HA different from vSphere HA?

A.    vCenter HA requires only an active and passive node.
B.    vCenter HA requires an external Platform Services Controller.
C.    vCenter HA requires Fault Tolerance.
D.    vCenter HA requires an active, passive, and witness node.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
A vSphere administrator wants to enable Proactive HA in a vSphere cluster. What is required to use this feature?

A.    vROps must be installed.
B.    DRS must be enabled.
C.    DCUI must be enabled.
D.    VCHA must be configured.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
A vSphere administrator is trying to create a resource pool but the option is grayed out. What must be enabled before creating a resource pool?

A.    DRS
B.    Storage DRS
C.    EVC
D.    HA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
A vSphere Administrator configures Quick Boot to restart an ESXi host without rebooting the physical hardware. In order to troubleshoot any ESXi Quick Boot issues, which log file needs to be reviewed?

A.    vmkeventd.log
B.    vmkernel.log
C.    vpxa.log
D.    loadESX.log

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
A vSphere administrator configures log forwarding for remote syslog server in a vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA) through the vCenter Server Appliance Management Interface (VAMI). What is the maximum number of remote syslog servers that can be configured?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
Which action should be taken to secure ISCSI devices in a vSphere environment?

A.    Require Secure Remote Protocol.
B.    Require ESXi hosts to use ISCSI port binding.
C.    Require vCenter Enhanced Linked Mode.
D.    Require ESXi hosts to authentication to the target.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
Which VM storage policy rule category ensures all VMs for a department are on the same datastore?

A.    Capability
B.    Data Service
C.    Host
D.    Tag

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
An administrator runs multiple clusters spread across multiple vCenters. The administrator needs to be able to migrate any VM to any cluster. On which two vCenter Server objects could the administrator configure EVC mode to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

A.    VM
B.    resource pool
C.    datacenter
D.    cluster
E.    folder

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
Which two availability features require a VM restart for recovery? (Choose two.)

A.    vSphere DPM
B.    vSphere vMotion
C.    vSphere Replication
D.    vSphere Fault Tolerance
E.    vSphere HA

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 14
A vSphere Administrator wants to convert a vCenter Server instance with an external Platform Services Controller to an embedded Platform Services Controller instance. Which tool should be used to accomplish this?

A.    VMware vCenter Converter
B.    Cloud Client Utility
C.    Convergence Utility
D.    Cmsso-util Utility

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
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NEW QUESTION 142
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure ExpressRoute has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Use the Azure traffic analytics solution in Azure Log Analytics to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

NEW QUESTION 143
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure ExpressRoute has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Network Watcher Network performance monitor is a cloud-based hybrid network monitoring solution that helps you monitor network performance between various points in your network infrastructure. It also helps you monitor network connectivity to service and application endpoints and monitor the performance of Azure ExpressRoute.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

NEW QUESTION 144
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure ExpressRoute has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Install and configure the Log Analytics and Dependency Agents on all VMs. Use the Wire Data solution in Azure Log Analytics to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview

NEW QUESTION 145
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest is synced to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an Azure AD Domain Services (Azure AD DS) domain named contoso-aad.com. You have an Azure Storage account named Storage1 that contains a file share named Share1. You configure NTFS permissions on Share1. You plan to deploy a virtual machine that will be used by several users to access Share1. You need to ensure that the users can access Share1. Which type virtual machine should you deploy?

A.    a virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016 and is joined to the contoso.com domain
B.    a virtual machine that runs Windows 10 and is joined to the contoso-add.com domain
C.    a virtual machine that runs Windows 10 and is hybrid Azure AD joined to the contoso.com domain
D.    an Azure virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016 and is joined to the contoso-add.com domain

Answer: D
Explanation:
You join the Windows Server virtual machine to the Azure AD DS-managed domain, here named contoso-aad.com. Azure Files supports identity-based authentication over SMB (Server Message Block) (preview) through Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Domain Services. Your domain-joined Windows virtual machines (VMs) can access Azure file shares using Azure AD credentials.
Incorrect:
Not B, C: Azure AD authentication over SMB is not supported for Linux VMs for the preview release. Only Windows Server VMs are supported.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-files-active-directory-enable#mount-a-file-share-from-a-domain-joined-vm

NEW QUESTION 146
Your company has an on-premises data center and an Azure subscription. The on-premises data center contains a Hardware Security Module (HSM). Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synchronized to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company is developing an application named Application1. Application1 will be hosted in Azure by using 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. Five virtual machines will be in the West Europe Azure region and five virtual machines will be in the East US Azure region. The virtual machines will store sensitive company information. All the virtual machines will use managed disks. You need to recommend a solution to encrypt the virtual machine disks by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
Solution: Deploy one Azure Key Vault to each region. Create two Azure AD service principals. Configure the virtual machines to use Azure Disk Encryption and specify a different service principal for the virtual machines in each region.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You would also have to import Import the security keys from the HSM into each Azure key vault.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-prerequisites-aad

NEW QUESTION 147
Your company has an on-premises data center and an Azure subscription. The on-premises data center contains a Hardware Security Module (HSM). Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synchronized to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The company is developing an application named Application1. Application1 will be hosted in Azure by using 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. Five virtual machines will be in the West Europe Azure region and five virtual machines will be in the East US Azure region. The virtual machines will store sensitive company information. All the virtual machines will use managed disks. You need to recommend a solution to encrypt the virtual machine disks by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
Solution: Export a security key from the on-premises HSM. Create one Azure AD service principal. Configure the virtual machines to use Azure Storage Service Encryption.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
We use the Azure Premium Key Vault with Hardware Security Modules (HSM) backed keys. The Key Vault has to be in the same region as the VM that will be encrypted.
https://www.ciraltos.com/azure-disk-encryption-v2/

NEW QUESTION 148
Your company has deployed several virtual machines (VMs) on-premises and to Azure. Azure ExpressRoute has been deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity. Several VMs are exhibiting network connectivity issues. You need to analyze the network traffic to determine whether packets are being allowed or denied to the VMs.
Solution: Use Azure Advisor to analyze the network traffic.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure Network Watcher to run IP flow verify to analyze the network traffic.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/advisor/advisor-overview

NEW QUESTION 149
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is federated to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The on-premises domain contains a VPN server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You have a single on-premises location that uses an address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You need to implement two-factor authentication for users who establish VPN connections to Server1. What should you include in the implementation?

A.    In Azure AD, create a conditional access policy and a trusted named location.
B.    Install and configure Azure MFA Server on-premises.
C.    Configure an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server on-premises.
D.    In Azure AD, configure the authentication methods.
From the multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings, create a trusted IP range.

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need to download, install and configure the MFA Server.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfaserver-deploy

NEW QUESTION 150
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that has four departments. Each department will deploy several Azure app services and Azure SQL databases. You need to recommend a solution to report the costs for each department to deploy the app services and the databases. The solution must provide a consolidated view for cost reporting.
Solution: Create a resources group for each resource type. Assign tags to each resource group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Tags enable you to retrieve related resources from different resource groups. This approach is helpful when you need to organize resources for billing or management.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 151
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that has four departments. Each department will deploy several Azure app services and Azure SQL databases. You need to recommend a solution to report the costs for each department to deploy the app services and the databases. The solution must provide a consolidated view for cost reporting.
Solution: Place all resources in the same resource group. Assign tags to each resource.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead, create a resources group for each resource type. Assign tags to each resource. Tags enable you to retrieve related resources from different resource groups. This approach is helpful when you need to organize resources for billing or management.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 152
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that has four departments. Each department will deploy several Azure app services and Azure SQL databases. You need to recommend a solution to report the costs for each department to deploy the app services and the databases. The solution must provide a consolidated view for cost reporting.
Solution: Create a new subscription for each department.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 153
You plan to store data in Azure Blob storage for many years. The stored data will be accessed rarely. You need to ensure that the data in Blob storage is always available for immediate access. The solution must minimize storage costs. Which storage tier should you use?

A.    Cool
B.    Archive
C.    Hot

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure cool tier is equivalent to the Amazon S3 Infrequent Access (S3-IA) storage in AWS that provides a low cost high performance storage for infrequently access data.
Incorrect:
Not B: Even though Azure archive storage offers the lowest cost in terms of data storage, its data retrieval charges are higher than that of hot and cool tiers. In fact, the data in the archive tier remains offline until the tier of the data is changed using a process called hydration. The process of hydrating data in the archive storage tier and moving it to either hot or cool tier could take up to 15 hours and, hence, it is only intended for data that can afford that kind of access delay.
Not C: The storage cost for this Azure cold storage tier is lower than that of hot storage tier.
https://cloud.netapp.com/blog/low-cost-storage-options-on-azure

NEW QUESTION 154
You manage an application instance. The application consumes data from multiple databases. Application code references database tables using a combination of the server, database, and table name. You need to migrate the application instance to Azure. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    SQL Server Stretch Database
B.    SQL Server in an Azure virtual machine
C.    Azure SQL Database
D.    SQL Managed Instance

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A: Access your SQL Server data seamlessly regardless of whether it’s on-premises or stretched to the cloud. You set the policy that determines where data is stored, and SQL Server handles the data movement in the background. The entire table is always online and queryable. And, Stretch Database doesn’t require any changes to existing queries or applications – the location of the data is completely transparent to the application.
D: The managed instance deployment model is designed for customers looking to migrate a large number of apps from on-premises or IaaS, self-built, or ISV provided environment to fully managed PaaS cloud environment, with as low migration effort as possible. Using the fully automated Data Migration Service (DMS) in Azure, customers can lift and shift their on-premises SQL Server to a managed instance that offers compatibility with SQL Server on-premises and complete isolation of customer instances with native VNet support.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/stretch-database/stretch-database
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 155
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure Batch application that runs the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use an Azure Logic Apps, which helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow

NEW QUESTION 156
You plan to run an image rendering workload in Azure. The workload uses parallel compute processes. What is the best service to use to run the workload? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Choose the BEST answer.)

A.    an Azure virtual machine scale set
B.    Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)
C.    Azure Batch
D.    Azure Container Service

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Batch works well with intrinsically parallel (also known as “embarrassingly parallel”) workloads. Intrinsically parallel workloads are those where the applications can run independently, and each instance completes part of the work. When the applications are executing, they might access some common data, but they do not communicate with other instances of the application. Intrinsically parallel workloads can therefore run at a large scale, determined by the amount of compute resources available to run applications simultaneously.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

NEW QUESTION 157
You need to recommend a solution to generate a monthly report of all the new Azure Resource Manager resource deployments in your subscription. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    the Change Tracking management solution
B.    Azure Activity Log
C.    Azure Monitor action groups
D.    Azure Advisor

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Azure Activity Log provides insight into subscription-level events that have occurred in Azure. This includes a range of data, from Azure Resource Manager operational data to updates on Service Health events. Activity logs are kept for 90 days. You can query for any range of dates, as long as the starting date isn’t more than 90 days in the past.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit

NEW QUESTION 158
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NEW QUESTION 466
A CUCM end user with Extension Mobility is associated with an 8851 phone and 8851 device profile. However, the user logs into a Cisco 8941, which device profile will be used?

A.    8941 default device profile
B.    8851 default device profile
C.    the 8851 device profile
D.    universal device profile

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 467
Which Cisco Unified Mobility setting enables or disables an incoming call to ring the desk phone and the remote destination at the same time?

A.    Mobility Profile
B.    Answer Too Soon timer
C.    Remote Destination Profile
D.    Enable Mobile Connect

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 468
Which method is recommended to implement high availability when configuring the Extension Mobility phone service?

A.    unique phone service for each Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
B.    automatically handled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C.    server load balancer virtual IP
D.    DNS A record with multiple IPs listed

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 469
Which is best practice on where to mark the packet when a Cisco IP phone is connected to Cisco Switch?

A.    access layer switch
B.    branch router
C.    Cisco IP phone
D.    core layer switch

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 470
Where does an engineer configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager Directory URI?

A.    directory number
B.    Cisco IPC
C.    CSF-Jabber
D.    physical phone

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 471
QoS should be configured on Cisco VCS because it processes the media and the call signaling. The endpoints that register to Cisco VCS (such as the Cisco TelePresence System EX Series, C Series, and Cisco IP Video Phone E20) should be configured so that media uses which Layer 3 DSCP packet value?

A.    AF41 (34)
B.    EF (46)
C.    CS4 (32)
D.    CS3 (24)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 472
A Cisco IP phone is registered to a SRST gateway and the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server is back online. What is the default duration the phone monitors its connection to the Cisco Unified CM server, before unregistering with the SRST gateway and registering with the Cisco Unified CM server?

A.    0
B.    30
C.    120
D.    60

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 473
Imagine you configured several zones for device registration on Cisco VCS. To which superior zone are all of your configured zones associated?

A.    traversal subzone
B.    root zone
C.    default subzone
D.    default zone
E.    default registration zone

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 474
Which two statements about Zones on Cisco Expressways are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can register endpoints to default zone.
B.    Bandwidth for calls between endpoints in the same zone cannot be restricted.
C.    Endpoints are associated to default subzone or any customized subzone depending on the IP address of the endpoint.
D.    A neighbor zone connects Cisco Expressway Core to other systems via SIP or H.323.
E.    A neighbor zone connects Cisco Expressway Core to Cisco Expressway for NAT, PAT, and firewall traversal.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 475
An engineer must verify that Expressway connects to Cisco Unified Communication Manager using TLS. Which menu navigation sequence accomplishes this task?

A.    Configuration > Domains
B.    Configuration > Dial plan > Transforms
C.    Configuration > Dial plan > Search rules
D.    Configuration > Zones > Zones

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 476
Which default DSCP marking value do telepresence endpoints use for video?

A.    CS4
B.    CS2
C.    AF41
D.    EF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 477
The phone model series for the physical device and user profile is matching (i.e.797x) in Extension Mobility. What Extension Mobility equivalency feature enables differences?

A.    Size Safe
B.    Call Display Restriction Features
C.    CUCM Assistant Features
D.    Feature Safe

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 478
Which two configuration items must you verify when a Cisco Unified IP Phone fails to register to the secondary Call Manager server? (Choose two.)

A.    Date/Time Group Configuration
B.    Cisco Unified CM Group Configuration
C.    Application Server Configuration
D.    Device Pool Configuration
E.    SRST Reference Configuration

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 479
Which command does an engineer execute to find out the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database replication status in CLI?

A.    utils dbreplication clusterrest
B.    utils dbreplication quickaudit
C.    utils dbreplication rebuild
D.    utils dbreplication runtimestate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
Which two devices or applications support call preservation? (Choose two.)

A.    JTAPI applications
B.    CTI applications
C.    a software conference bridge
D.    an annunciator
E.    SIP trunks

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 481
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication. On one cluster, she would like to prevent the local cluster from routing calls to a specific pattern learned via ILS. What should be configured within the local CUCM cluster to accomplish this?

A.    Create a block transformation pattern.
B.    Create a block route pattern.
C.    Create a block translation pattern.
D.    Create a block learned pattern.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 482
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You are Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. Sales representatives must enter estimated revenue only as an exception. You need to ensure that estimated revenue for opportunities is automatically calculated. What should you do?

A.    In the System Settings sales tab, change the default revenue type to System Calculated.
B.    In custom controls, change the default revenue setting to System Calculated.
C.    In Personalization settings for each user, change the default revenue type to System Calculated.
D.    In Opportunities, change the default value of the revenue type to System Calculated.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
You manage a default Dynamics 365 for Sales environment. You are configuring a sales dashboard. You need to create an interactive dashboard. Which three entities can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    Queue Item
B.    Opportunity
C.    Knowledge Article
D.    Case
E.    Invoice

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/configure-interactive-dashboards

NEW QUESTION 3
A company plans to close early on the last day of the month for an employee celebration. You need to configure Dynamics 365 to prevent scheduling of sales support resources for that day. Which feature should you use?

A.    Events
B.    Business closure
C.    Fiscal calendar
D.    Time off request

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-when-business-closed-csh

NEW QUESTION 4
An organization uses sales dashboards in Dynamics 365. You need to configure a single a dashboard that includes the following data:
– both complex key performance indicators that are derived from external data and custom visuals
– real-time data on sales performance that is based on Dynamics 365 data
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Add the external data as virtual entities in Dynamics 365 and use it for the dashboard visualizations.
B.    Create all visuals in a Microsoft Power BI dashboard. Embed the dashboard in Dynamics 365.
C.    Create tiles and a dashboard in Microsoft Power BI.
D.    Create charts with required data in Dynamics 365.
E.    Combine Microsoft Power BI and standard charts on a standard dashboard in Dynamics 365.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 5
An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to create a quote template in Microsoft Word for use in the organization. What should you do?

A.    Create a flow
B.    Enable dynamic content in Microsoft Word
C.    Enable the Developer tab in Microsoft Word
D.    Enable VBA in Microsoft Word

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/using-word-templates-dynamics-365

NEW QUESTION 6
You manage Dynamics 365 environments for client organizations. A client suspects they are losing business. The client must be able to capture reasons each time an opportunity is lost. You need to configure Dynamics 365 to ensure that you can capture the required information. Which field should you configure?

A.    Opportunity status reason
B.    Opportunity close status
C.    Opportunity status
D.    Opportunity close status reason

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
An order uses quote and order functionality in Dynamics 365 for Sales. Multiple quotes may be provided to customers at one time. Quotes are revised often. You need to create a process that meets the following requirements:
– create an order from a quote
– close the associated opportunity as won
– update the actual values to reflect values from the quote
Which two opportunities can you close as won? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    The opportunity has other quotes in the won status.
B.    The opportunity has other quotes in the draft status.
C.    The opportunity has other quotes in the active status.
D.    The opportunity has other quotes in the revised status reason.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 8
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to change the description field on the quote. Which state allows you to make the change?

A.    Closed
B.    Active
C.    Draft
D.    Won

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You use Dynamics 365 for Sales system customizer. You need to create product kits and bundles. What should you create? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-product-bundles-sell-multiple-items-together

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
The product development team for a toy company creates a new remote-control toy. You need to create the necessary records and record relationships to sell the product. Which five records and/or components should you configure in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate records and/or components from the list of records and components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. The sales team is having difficulty locating related products. You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar. What should you use?

A.    Related products
B.    Product bundles
C.    Product families
D.    Product unit groups

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

NEW QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. You are setting up a product catalog. You need to configure the base unit group. Which quantity or measurement should you configure?

A.    the highest needed to sell the product or service
B.    the least frequently used to sell the service
C.    the most frequently used to sell the service
D.    the lowest needed to sell the product or service

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-professional/create-unit-group-add-units

NEW QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 system customizer. You create a price list with related products. Sales team members use the list to generate opportunities, quotes, and orders. You need to create a product family. What should you do?

A.    Add a new product family to an existing product family.
B.    Delete the existing price list and create a new one.
C.    Create a unit group for use with the product family.
D.    Add a parent product family to an existing product family.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-product-family

NEW QUESTION 14
……


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NEW QUESTION 444
After the departure of a developer under unpleasant circumstances, the company is concerned about the security of the software to which the developer has access. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure security of the code following the incident?

A.    Hire an external red tem to conduct black box testing.
B.    Conduct a peer review and cross reference the SRTM.
C.    Perform white-box testing on all impacted finished products.
D.    Perform regression testing and search for suspicious code.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 445
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is developing a new BIA for the organization. The CISO wants to gather requirements to determine the appropriate RTO and RPO for the organization’s ERP. Which of the following should the CISO interview as MOST qualified to provide RTO/RPO metrics?

A.    Data custodian
B.    Data owner
C.    Security analyst
D.    Business unit director
E.    Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 446
A security engineer is employed by a hospital that was recently purchased by a corporation. Throughout the acquisition process, all data on the virtualized file servers must be shared by departments within both organizations. The security engineer considers data ownership to determine ____.

A.    the amount of data to be moved
B.    the frequency of data backups
C.    which users will have access to which data
D.    when the file server will be decommissioned

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 447
An information security manager conducted a gap analysis, which revealed a 75% implementation of security controls for high-risk vulnerabilities, 90% for medium vulnerabilities, and 10% for low-risk vulnerabilities. To create a road map to close the identified gaps, the assurance team reviewed the likelihood of exploitation of each vulnerability and the business impact of each associated control. To determine which controls to implement, which of the following is the MOST important to consider?

A.    KPI
B.    KRI
C.    GRC
D.    BIA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 448
A development team is testing an in-house-developed application for bugs. During the test, the application crashes several times due to null pointer exceptions. Which of the following tools, if integrated into an IDE during coding, would identify these bugs routinely?

A.    Issue tracker
B.    Static code analyzer
C.    Source code repository
D.    Fuzzing utility

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 449
A legacy web application, which is being used by a hospital, cannot be upgraded for 12 months. A new vulnerability is found in the legacy application, and the networking team is tasked with mitigation. Middleware for mitigation will cost $100,000 per year. Which of the following must be calculated to determine ROI? (Choose two.)

A.    ALE
B.    RTO
C.    MTBF
D.    ARO
E.    RPO

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 450
A project manager is working with a software development group to collect and evaluate user stories related to the organization’s internally designed CRM tool. After defining requirements, the project manager would like to validate the developer’s interpretation and understanding of the user’s request. Which of the following would BEST support this objective?

A.    Peer review
B.    Design review
C.    Scrum
D.    User acceptance testing
E.    Unit testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 451
A network printer needs Internet access to function. Corporate policy states all devices allowed on the network must be authenticated. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to allow the printer on the network without violating policy?

A.    Request an exception to the corporate policy from the risk management committee.
B.    Require anyone trying to use the printer to enter their username and password.
C.    Have a help desk employee sign in to the printer every morning.
D.    Issue a certificate to the printer and use certificate-based authentication.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 452
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of an established security department, identifies a customer who has been using a fraudulent credit card. The CISO calls the local authorities, and when they arrive on- site, the authorities ask a security engineer to create a point-in-time copy of the running database in their presence. This is an example of ____.

A.    creating a forensic image
B.    deploying fraud monitoring
C.    following a chain of custody
D.    analyzing the order of volatility

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 453
A technician is configuring security options on the mobile device manager for users who often utilize public Internet connections while travelling. After ensuring that full disk encryption is enabled, which of the following security measures should the technician take? (Choose two.)

A.    Require all mobile device backups to be encrypted.
B.    Ensure all mobile devices back up using USB OTG.
C.    Issue a remote wipe of corporate and personal partitions.
D.    Restrict devices from making long-distance calls during business hours.
E.    Implement an always-on VPN.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 454
A systems administrator receives an advisory email that a recently discovered exploit is being used in another country and the financial institutions have ceased operations while they find a way to respond to the attack. Which of the following BEST describes where the administrator should look to find information on the attack to determine if a response must be prepared for the systems? (Choose two.)

A.    Bug bounty websites
B.    Hacker forums
C.    Antivirus vendor websites
D.    Trade industry association websites
E.    CVE database
F.    Company’s legal department

Answer: EF

NEW QUESTION 455
A security assessor is working with an organization to review the policies and procedures associated with managing the organization’s virtual infrastructure. During a review of the virtual environment, the assessor determines the organization is using servers to provide more than one primary function, which violates a regulatory requirement. The assessor reviews hardening guides and determines policy allows for this configuration. It would be MOST appropriate for the assessor to advise the organization to ____.

A.    segment dual-purpose systems on a hardened network segment with no external access
B.    assess the risks associated with accepting non-compliance with regulatory requirements
C.    update system implementation procedures to comply with regulations
D.    review regulatory requirements and implement new policies on any newly provisioned servers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456
While conducting a BIA for a proposed acquisition, the IT integration team found that both companies outsource CRM services to competing and incompatible third-party cloud services. The decision has been made to bring the CRM service in-house, and the IT team has chosen a future solution. With which of the following should the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) be MOST concerned? (Choose two.)

A.    Data remnants
B.    Sovereignty
C.    Compatible services
D.    Storage encryption
E.    Data migration
F.    Chain of custody

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 457
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) suspects that a database administrator has been tampering with financial data to the administrator’s advantage. Which of the following would allow a third-party consultant to conduct an on-site review of the administrator’s activity?

A.    Separation of duties
B.    Job rotation
C.    Continuous monitoring
D.    Mandatory vacation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458
Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses on continuous improvement of the organization’s incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has the incident team lead executed?

A.    Lessons learned review
B.    Root cause analysis
C.    Incident audit
D.    Corrective action exercise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 459
Following a recent network intrusion, a company wants to determine the current security awareness of all of its employees. Which of the following is the BEST way to test awareness?

A.    Conduct a series of security training events with comprehensive tests at the end.
B.    Hire an external company to provide an independent audit of the network security posture.
C.    Review the social media of all employees to see how much proprietary information is shared.
D.    Send an email from a corporate account, requesting users to log onto a website with their enterprise account.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 460
A company’s security policy states any remote connections must be validated using two forms of network- based authentication. It also states local administrative accounts should not be used for any remote access. PKI currently is not configured within the network. RSA tokens have been provided to all employees, as well as a mobile application that can be used for 2FA authentication. A new NGFW has been installed within the network to provide security for external connections, and the company has decided to use it for VPN connections as well. Which of the following should be configured? (Choose two.)

A.    Certificate-based authentication
B.    TACACS+
C.    802.1X
D.    RADIUS
E.    LDAP
F.    Local user database

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 461
The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict PII security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used?

A.    Avoid
B.    Mitigate
C.    Transfer
D.    Accept

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 462
A security administrator is updating a company’s SCADA authentication system with a new application. To ensure interoperability between the legacy system and the new application, which of the following stakeholders should be involved in the configuration process before deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    Network engineer
B.    Service desk personnel
C.    Human resources administrator
D.    Incident response coordinator
E.    Facilities manager
F.    Compliance manager

Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 463
A company has decided to replace all the T-1 uplinks at each regional office and move away from using the existing MPLS network. All regional sites will use high-speed connections and VPNs to connect back to the main campus. Which of the following devices would MOST likely be added at each location?

A.    SIEM
B.    IDS/IPS
C.    Proxy server
D.    Firewall
E.    Router

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 464
First responders, who are part of a core incident response team, have been working to contain an outbreak of ransomware that also led to data loss in a rush to isolate the three hosts that were calling out to the NAS to encrypt whole directories, the hosts were shut down immediately without investigation and then isolated. Which of the following were missed? (Choose two.)

A.    CPU, process state tables, and main memory dumps.
B.    Essential information needed to perform data restoration to a known clean state.
C.    Temporary file system and swap space.
D.    Indicators of compromise to determine ransomware encryption.
E.    Chain of custody information needed for investigation.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 465
A regional business is expecting a severe winter storm next week. The IT staff has been reviewing corporate policies on how to handle various situations and found some are missing or incomplete. After reporting this gap in documentation to the information security manager, a document is immediately drafted to move various personnel to other locations to avoid downtime in operations. This is an example of ____.

A.    a disaster recovery plan
B.    an incident response plan
C.    a business continuity plan
D.    a risk avoidance plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 466
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
To ensure that your customer’s cluster is robust and operational, you need to be familiar with configuration best practices. Which three practice rules should you always follow? (Choose three.)

A.    Keep all nodes in the cluster on the same version of ONTAP.
B.    Use LIFs with defined failover policies.
C.    Remove failed disk drives once a year to maintain minimum interruption in your controller stability.
D.    All power supply units should be plugged into the same power grid.
E.    Do not use the root aggregate for storing data.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 2
You just finished an AFF A300 installation with two DS224C disk shelves. What are two ways to cable these disk shelves? (Choose two.)

A.    Use alternative control path.
B.    Use single-path HA.
C.    Use quad-path HA.
D.    Use multipath HA.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 3
A customer has a standard request for information regarding the installation, configuration, usage, and maintenance of his NetApp equipment. What is the appropriate priority level to use when he opens a case?

A.    P2
B.    P1
C.    P4
D.    P3

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
You have created an aggregate with one RAID group on your ONTAP 9 cluster. Two disks have already failed and have not finished reconstructing. What would protect you from a third disk failure while you are still reconstructing the two failed disks?

A.    RAID-0
B.    RAID-4
C.    RAID-TEC
D.    RAID-DP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
What are two ways to obtain customer licenses for a new ONTAP system? (Choose two.)

A.    Access the NetApp Support site.
B.    Open a support ticket.
C.    Access the Field Portal site.
D.    Access NetApp Knowledge Base.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6
What is the minimum number of iSCSI LIFs per node in ONTAP 9.5?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    1
D.    4

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
A customer ordered two new DS224C shelves. The customer wants you to add these shelves to an existing stack which consists of two DS2246 shelves. Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    You need to order additional cables to expand the existing stack.
B.    Mixing DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same node are not supported.
C.    You cannot mix DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same stack.
D.    DS224C shelves are supports with only new HBAs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
You are asked to install a new ONTAP cluster at a customer site. In this scenario, which ONTAP versions would you normally install? (Choose two.)

A.    the latest RC1 with the included patch level
B.    the latest GA with the included patch level
C.    the release specified by the customer
D.    the latest D release listed for the controller type

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 9
You install and apply the NetApp RSCF on cluster interconnect switches. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    The RCF file enables jumbo frames for all cluster traffic.
B.    The RCF file enables IPv6 for use by the cluster traffic.
C.    The RCF file enables flow control and is set to receive.
D.    The RCF file enables CDP to allow connected devices to discover the switch.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
You want to grow your current ONTAP cluster. You have a Cisco Nexus 5596UP that is currently using all of its on-board ports. Which statement is correct in this situation?

A.    Contact NetApp Support to order new switches.
B.    Add expansion modules to the Cisco switches.
C.    Pull the redundant cables from each node to obtain more free ports on the switch.
D.    Add new SFP modules to the empty on board ports on the Cisco switches.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
A new AFF8200 has a four-port UTA2 adapter installed in slot 2. Using the ucadmin command, you see that these ports are configured for FC. Which port names are correct in this scenario?

A.    e0a/0a, e0b/0b, e0c/0c, e0d/od
B.    e2a/2a, e2b/2b, e2c/2c, e2d/2d
C.    e2a, e2b, e2c, e2d
D.    2a, 2b, 2c, 2d

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
You have just installed a new FAS2620 on a cluster site. You are using the USB cable for the intial configuration. In this scenario, what is the default speed for the serial connection?

A.    9600 bps
B.    15200 bps
C.    576000 bps
D.    115200 bps

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
You just finish the installation of a single-node cluster. You want to make sure that the cluster backups are saved to a different location. What is required to accomplish this task?

A.    Set up AutoSupport.
B.    Enable copy offloading.
C.    Set up SVM disaster recovery.
D.    Configure a system configuration backup.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about the ONTAP 9.5 networking features? (Choose two.)

A.    The broadcast domain is a layer 2 object.
B.    The broadcast domain is a layer 3 object.
C.    The MTU will be the same across all ports in a broadcast domain.
D.    The MTU will change based on each port configuration in a broadcast domain.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 15
What is a node?

A.    A node refers to all physical devices bound together In the cluster.
B.    A node is the logical device that shares data.
C.    A node is a logical network port.
D.    A node is a controller that is part of the cluster.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization effectively track, manage, and deliver project-based services. Which application should you select?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Field Service
C.    Project Service automation
D.    Sales

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/project-service/overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. You need to create solution components using customization tools. Which two components can be included in a solution? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    audit logs
B.    sitemap
C.    team
D.    business unit
E.    global option sets

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined test to determine if it is correct. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
The Customer Service Hub app is available on desktop browser and on a mobile device, it can be used for managing cases and knowledge articles.

A.    No change needed
B.    optimizes viewing for desktop browsers only
C.    is available on a desktop browser for case management, but not for managing knowledge articles
D.    does not provide the ability to add an activity to a case on a mobile device

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You need to use Microsoft Flow to perform data-management tasks when users interact with records in Dynamics 365. Which three types of triggers can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)

A.    on demand
B.    when a record is created
C.    on request
D.    when a record is updated
E.    when a record is deleted

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 5
You run Dynamics 365 on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. You migrate all managed solutions and data to Dynamics 365 online and decommission all on-premises infrastructure. You need to determine which type of cloud service model is being used. Which type of cloud service model is being used?

A.    infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
B.    platform as a service (PaaS)
C.    hybrid deployment
D.    software as a service (SaaS)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
You need to identify which applications can be deployed as software as a service (SaaS) in the Microsoft cloud. Which two applications can be deployed? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
B.    Dynamics GP
C.    Microsoft Excel
D.    Dynamics CRM 2016

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 7
A risk-averse company wants to implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to recommend the appropriate software release cycle. Which software release should you recommend?

A.    targeted release (Preview)
B.    first release (Production)
C.    standard release
D.    finance and operations team
E.    feature teams

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-in-office-365?view=o365-worldwide

NEW QUESTION 8
A company needs to assess the current General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) compliance for its Dynamics 365 and Microsoft 365 Office implementations. You need to recommend a tool to help manage GDPR compliance activities. You also need to provide a compliance score with managed actions for both the company and Microsoft. Which tool should you recommend?

A.    Microsoft Trust Center
B.    Detailed Assessment Toolkit
C.    Compliance Manager
D.    Service Trust Portal
E.    Control Mapping

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/meet-data-protection-and-regulatory-reqs-using-microsoft-cloud

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud. Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
Match each response time to its level for Dynamics 365. (To answer, drag the appropriate level from the column on the lest to its response time on the right. Each level may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
You company wants to test Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement. The 30-day trial expires in a few days. You need to extend the trial period for an additional 30 days. What should you do?

A.    Purchase a 30-day subscription.
B.    In the administrative portal, choose Extend trial, and then enter your credit card information.
C.    Open a support ticket with Microsoft to ask for an extension.
D.    Export your solution, start a new trial, and import the solution.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/billing-faqs-dynamics-365-online

NEW QUESTION 12
A university is implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement. You need to purchase the minimum number of full licenses. How many licenses should you purchase?

A.    5
B.    10
C.    15
D.    20

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
Several company employees need access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for expense entry purposes only. You need to add the most restrictive license. What should you do?

A.    Get a User Subscription License (User SL) and give full user access.
B.    Get Licensed with Dynamics 365 Team Members.
C.    Get licensed with a Dynamics 365 Application subscription.
D.    Get a Device Subscription License (Device SL).

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
……


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NEW QUESTION 678
A network administrator is installing a campus network of two routers, 24 switches, 76 APs, and 492 VoIP phone sets. Which of the following additional devices should the administrator install to help manage this network?

A.    VoIP PBX
B.    Content filter
C.    RADIUS server
D.    Wireless controller

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 679
A technician arrives at a new building to find cabling has been run and terminated, but only the wall ports have been labeled. Which of the following tools should be utilized to BEST facilitate labeling the patch panel?

A.    Tone generator
B.    Cable tester
C.    Multimeter
D.    Loopback adapter

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 680
Which of the following policies prohibits a network administrator from using spare servers in the datacenter to mine bitcoins?

A.    NDA
B.    BYOD
C.    AUP
D.    MOU

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 681
Which of the following technologies is used when multiple Ethernet adapters work to increase speed and fault tolerance?

A.    Clustering
B.    Load balancing
C.    Redundant circuits
D.    NIC teaming

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 682
A network technician has finished configuring a new DHCP for a network. To ensure proper functionality, which of the following ports should be allowed on the server’s local firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    20
B.    21
C.    53
D.    67
E.    68
F.    389

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 683
A new technician is connecting an access switch to a distribution switch uplink in a datacenter using fiber cables. Which of the following are transceivers the technician should use to perform this job? (Choose two.)

A.    RJ45
B.    DB-9
C.    LC
D.    SFTP
E.    GBIC
F.    SC

Answer: CF

NEW QUESTION 684
Which of the following physical security devices is used to prevent unauthorized access into a datacenter?

A.    Motion detector
B.    Video camera
C.    Asset tracking
D.    Smart card reader

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 685
A technician is installing two new servers that collect logs. After installing the servers, the technician reviews the logical output from various commands. Which of the following should be included in a logical network diagram?

A.    Rack location
B.    Room number
C.    Media type
D.    Hostname

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 686
A few weeks after starting a new position, Joe, a junior network administrator, receives a call from an internal number asking for his username and password to update some records. Joe realizes this may be a type of attack on the network, since he has full access to network resources. Which of the following attacks is described?

A.    Logic bomb
B.    Social engineering
C.    Trojan horse
D.    Insider threat

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 687
A technician is sent to troubleshoot a faulty network connection. The technician tests the cable, and data passes through successfully. No changes were made in the environment, however, when a network device is connected to the switch using the cable, the switchport will not light up. Which of the following should the technician attempt NEXT?

A.    Modify the speed and duplex
B.    Plug in to another port
C.    Replace the NIC
D.    Change the switch

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 688
A technician has been assigned to capture packets on a specific switchport. Which of the following switch feature MUST be used to accomplish this?

A.    Spanning tree
B.    Trunking
C.    Port aggregation
D.    Port mirroring

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 689
Which of the following operate only within the UDP protocol?

A.    Frames
B.    Datagrams
C.    Segments
D.    Packets

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 690
An employee reports an error when visiting a website using SSL, and a message is displayed warning of an invalid certificate. Which of the following could be occurring?

A.    Phishing
B.    DDoS
C.    Evil twin
D.    MITM
E.    OCSP stapling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 691
A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and determines the cause is related to the VLAN assignment on one of the access switches in the network. After resolving the issue, the network technician decides to update the documentation to refer to the correct VLAN. Which of the following should the technician update?

A.    Physical diagram
B.    Logical diagram
C.    IDF documentation
D.    Change management documentation
E.    Incident response plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 692
A university has a lecture hall containing 100 students. Currently, the lecture hall has two 802.11ac wireless access points, which can accommodate up to 50 devices each. Several students report they are unable to connect devices to the wireless network. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

A.    One of the wireless access points is on the wrong frequency.
B.    The students are attempting to connect 802.11g devices.
C.    The students are using more than one wireless device port seat.
D.    Distance limitations are preventing the students from connecting.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 693
A WAP has been dropping off the network sporadically and reconnecting shortly thereafter. The Cat5 wire connecting the access point is a long run of 265ft (81m) and goes through the business area and the mechanical room. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the AP connectivity issue?

A.    Install a repeater to boost the signal to its destination.
B.    Replace the UTP cable with plenum cable.
C.    Upgrade the cable from Cat 5 to Cat 5e.
D.    Set the AP to half duplex to compensate for signal loss.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 694
A technician wants to configure a SOHO network to use a specific public DNS server. Which of the following network components should the technician configure to point all clients on a network to a new DNS server?

A.    Router
B.    Switch
C.    Load balancer
D.    Proxy server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 695
A company wishes to allow employees with company-owned mobile devices to connect automatically to the corporate wireless network upon entering the facility. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this objective?

A.    Open wireless
B.    Geofencing
C.    Pre-shared key
D.    MAC filtering

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 696
A network engineer for a manufacturing company is implementing a wireless network that provides reliable coverage throughout the facility. There are several large, electric, motorized machines installed on the shop floor for automating the manufacturing process. These machines are known to be significant sources of RF interference. Which of the following frequencies should the wireless network use to MINIMIZE this interference?

A.    2.4 GHz
B.    56 MHz
C.    5 GHz
D.    900 MHz

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 697
A company has procured a new office building and started the process of assigning employees to work at that location. The company has also purchased equipment for the new location. There are 5,033 laptops, 6,000 monitors, and 857 printers. Which of the following steps is the technician most likely to complete FIRST?

A.    Create a rack diagram.
B.    Create a network baseline.
C.    Create an inventory database.
D.    Create a port location diagram.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 698
Which of the following is created on a 48-port switch with five active VLANs?

A.    48 networks, 5 segments.
B.    48 collision domains, 5 broadcast domains.
C.    240 private networks.
D.    240 usable IP addresses.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 699
A corporate manager says wireless phones do not work properly inside the main building. After a troubleshooting process, the network administrator detects that the voice packets are arriving on the wireless phones with different delay times. Which of the following performance issues is the company facing?

A.    Jitter
B.    Latency
C.    Attenuation
D.    Frequency mismatch

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 700
Which of the following technologies is used to attach multiple guest operating systems to a single physical network port?

A.    Virtual switch
B.    FCoE
C.    VPC
D.    vSAN
E.    Fibre Channel

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 701
When speaking with a client, an employee realizes a proposed solution may contain a specific cryptographic technology that is prohibited for non-domestic use. Which of the following documents or regulations should be consulted for confirmation?

A.    Incident response policy
B.    International export controls
C.    Data loss prevention
D.    Remote access policies
E.    Licensing restrictions

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 702
A network technician is installing a new network switch in the MDF. The technician is using fiber to connect the switch back to the core. Which of the following transceiver types should the technician use?

A.    MT-RJ
B.    BNC
C.    GBIC
D.    F-type

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 703
A network technician notices a router that repeatedly reboots. When contacting technical support, the technician discovers this is a known problem in which an attacker can craft packets and send them to the router through an obsolete protocol port, causing the router to reboot. Which of the following did the network technician fail to do? (Choose two.)

A.    Generate new crypto keys.
B.    Keep patches updated.
C.    Disable unnecessary services.
D.    Shut down unused interfaces.
E.    Avoid using common passwords.
F.    Implement file hashing.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 704
A technician has replaced a customer’s desktop with a known-good model from storage. However, the replacement desktop will not connect to network resources. The technician suspects the desktop has not been kept up to date with security patches. Which of the following is MOST likely in place?

A.    ACL
B.    NAC
C.    Traffic shaping
D.    SDN
E.    NTP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 705
A network technician wants to gain a better understanding of network trends to determine if they are over capacity. Which of the following processes should the technician use?

A.    Log review
B.    Port scanning
C.    Vulnerability scanning
D.    Traffic analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 706
A network technician is configuring network addresses and port numbers for a router ACL to block a peer- to-peer application. Which of the following is the HIGHEST layer of the OSI model at which this router ACL operates?

A.    Transport
B.    Network
C.    Session
D.    Application

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 707
An attacker has flooded the hardware tables of a switch to forward traffic to the attacker’s IP address rather than the default router. The traffic received is copied in real time, and then forwarded to the default router transparently from the end-user perspective. Which of the following attacks are occurring in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS poisoning
B.    ARP poisoning
C.    Man-in-the-middle
D.    Ransomware
E.    Evil twin
F.    Reflective

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 708
Drag and Drop
You are tasked with creating a network that will accomplish the following requirements:
– The remote Sales Team must be able to connect to the corporate network.
– Each department must have ONLY two PCs and a server.
– Eqach department must be segmented from each other.
– The following VLANs have been designed:
* VLAN 2 – Finance
* VLAN 12 – Sales
* VLAN 22 – Human Resources (HR)
– Routing for VLAN 12 is implemented on the router.
– Routing for VLAN 2 and VLAN 22 is on the switch.
(Complete the network by dragging the required objects onto the diagram. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 709
A remote user is required to upload weekly reports to a server at the main office. Both the remote user and the server are using a Windows-based OS. Which of the following represents the BEST method for the remote user to connect to the server?

A.    RDP
B.    Telnet
C.    SSH
D.    VNC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 710
At which of the following layers of the OSI model would TCP/UDP operate?

A.    Layer 3
B.    Layer 4
C.    Layer 5
D.    Layer 6

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 711
……


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NEW QUESTION 322
Company A has just implemented a SaaS-based cloud storage solution. The SaaS solution provides services for both commercial and personal use. The IT department has been tasked to migrate all the on- premises file shares to the SaaS solution with the username being the corporate email address. The IT department is currently using am IAM solution to provision the accounts in the SaaS solution. Upon execution of the account creation process, the IT department is receiving multiple “unable to create account” alerts. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.    The automation task is misconfigured.
B.    There is a false positive due to lack of testing.
C.    There are compatibility issues between SaaS and IAM.
D.    The user accounts already exist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 323
A company has moved all on-premises workloads into a public cloud. After some time, the cloud engineer starts noticing time drifts on the VMs and suspects an NTP issue. Time drifts were not an issue when all the workloads were on-premises. Which of the following describes how the cloud engineer should resolve the issue?

A.    Implement Coordinated Universal Time on all workloads.
B.    Point all workloads back to an on-premises NTP server.
C.    Point all workloads to a stratum 2 within the public cloud provider.
D.    Configure all of the VMs as NTP servers within the public cloud provider.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 324
A consultant is helping a gaming-as-a-service company set up a new cloud. The company recently bought several graphic card that need to be added to the servers. Which of the following should the consultant suggest as the MOST cost effective?

A.    Private
B.    Public
C.    Community
D.    SaaS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 325
A company wants to implement a public IaaS solution but also wants to address site resiliency challenges. When selecting an IaaS provider, which of the following should a cloud technician look for within the provider’s capabilities to meet the requirements?

A.    Bare metal service
B.    Failure zones
C.    Backup services
D.    Dedicated connectivity

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 326
A security administrator wants to automate the implementation of network-based ACLs for services deployed within the company VPC. The security administrator is mostly concerned with intra-VPN separation to prevent unauthorized communication between cloud deployed services within the VPC. Which of the following should the security administrator implement?

A.    Include a list of the firewall rules in the orchestration script.
B.    Use the cloud API to deploy and configure anti-malware services.
C.    Configure the appropriate IDS rules using the cloud portal.
D.    Write custom scripts to deploy a network ACL between the VPC and the company’s network.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 327
A CASB provides the application proxy and web application firewall to a large retailer. All access to the retailer cloud application must originate from the CASB-designated IP addresses. The CASB has known geolocations with known IP addresses. Suddenly, all customers are not able to access the retailer cloud applications. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the issue?

A.    Additional CASB IP addresses were added to the authorized pool.
B.    All of the CASB’s European datacenters are down.
C.    There was federation and SSO misconfiguration.
D.    The CASB’s SSL/TLS certificate expired.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 328
A tenant has provisioned a new database server. It needs to add the database files in the exclusion list for security scanning, as it allows down the performance and locks the database file. Which of the following solutions must have this exclusion?

A.    IPS
B.    IDS
C.    Antivirus
D.    Firewall

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 329
Ann, a technician, is using a saved workflow to deploy virtual servers. The script worked yesterday but is now returning an authentication error. Ann confirms that she can manually log in with her own account and create a virtual server. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the error?

A.    Certificate misconfiguration
B.    Account expiration
C.    Federation issues
D.    Encryption issues

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 330
An upgrade to a web application, which supports 400 users at four sites, is being tested. The application runs on four servers behind a load balancer. The following test plan is proposed:
– Have 50 users from site A connect to server 1
– Have 50 users from site B connect to server 2
– Have 50 users from site C connect to server 3
– Have 50 users from site D connect to server 4
Which of the following parameters is being properly tested by this plan?

A.    Sizing
B.    Connectivity
C.    High availability
D.    Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 331
A cloud administrator is managing two private cloud environments. In cloud A, the disaster recovery solution has an SLA for RPO of five minutes and RTO of one hour. In cloud B, the disaster recovery solution has an SLA for RPO of one hour and RTO of 24 hours. A new customer’s application requires that, in case of a disaster, no more than 15 minutes of data can be lost, and it should be fully recovered within one day. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to this application?

A.    Tell the customer cloud A is the best solution.
B.    Put it in cloud B and ask the customer to create snapshots every 15 minutes.
C.    Both cloud A and cloud B would suit the customer’s needs.
D.    Change the cloud B disaster recovery solution so RPO will be 15 minutes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 332
……


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A customer reported that during maintenance activity, some users were unable to connect to assigned desktops and received an error that the pool had no desktops available. Other users could connect to their assigned desktops without issue. Which three reasons could be the cause of the failure? (Choose three.)

A.    SQL Server was down.
B.    VMware Composer Server was down.
C.    View Connection Server was down.
D.    vCenter Server was down.
E.    App Volumes Manager Server was down.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 2
An architect is designing Active Directory (AD) permissions for a Horizon environment that will use pre-existing computer accounts. The AD Security Team has restrictions about the use of service accounts. What two sets of minimum permission are needed to delegate to an AD service account? (Choose two.)

A.    Create Computer Objects, Delete Computer Objects
B.    List Contents, Read All Properties
C.    Read Permissions, Reset Password
D.    Write Permissions, Change Password

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/view-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.view.administration.doc%2FGUID-ED99E026-5D70-4ADF-B4BC-A64A3386E10C.html

NEW QUESTION 3
An architect was asked to design a VMware supported solution which will support 3,000 users connecting to a local single floating desktop pool concurrently. Which Horizon View feature must be incorporated into the architect’s design to meet the requirement?

A.    Cloud Pod Architecture
B.    Instant Clones
C.    View Composer
D.    Local Entitlements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
A customer wants to deploy VMware Horizon View to support virtual desktops hosted in two different physical locations. It wants users to connect to the location nearest to them to start a session. Which three steps must be completed to enable this functionality? (Choose three.)

A.    Configure one View Pod spanning two sites.
B.    Initialize the Cloud Pod Federation.
C.    Configure Global Entitlements.
D.    Configure VMware User Environment Manager.
E.    Configure two View Pods.
F.    Configure Microsoft SQL Server Always On High Availability.

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 5
Which should NOT be changed or disabled on a connection server?

A.    Diagnostic System Host
B.    Remote Procedure Call
C.    Security Center
D.    WLAN AutoConfig

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
A VDI Architect wants to optimize Blast Extreme protocol between 400 Horizon Windows clients and agents on an organization’s LAN. No GPO currently makes Horizon settings to these clients or agents. What GPO setting will improve performance of these systems?

A.    Enable H264
B.    Disable UDP Protocol
C.    Enable UDP Protocol
D.    Disable H264

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
The IT team for a regional healthcare company wants to provide several applications to iOS and Android tablets and smartphones as well as Mac and Windows laptops using VMware products. It wants to minimize Windows desktop operating system licensing and support costs. Which meets the requirements?

A.    Use Horizon Linked Clones with Writable Volumes.
B.    Use Horizon RDS with application pools.
C.    Use Horizon RDS with Writable Volumes.
D.    Use Horizon Instant Clones with App Volumes.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
A company wants to allow sales personnel to use laptops to access the internal VDI. Due to security constraints, VDI desktop pools for travelers will not be granted access to the Internet. Sales personnel however will be able to access links from email or other documents from their VDI sessions. What can be implemented to meet these requirements?

A.    Install View Agent with URL redirection enabled.
B.    Install View Client with URL redirection enabled.
C.    Enable clipboard sharing.
D.    Enable Client Drive redirection.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
A customer is deploying a new Horizon View Pool which will support workstations deployed using older third-party zero clients. The older zero clients will be used to access a 3D modeling application. Which protocol should the pool use?

A.    RDP
B.    RGS
C.    PCoIP
D.    Blast Extreme

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
In a local design, a company selected one database instance to be shared by Horizon View Composer database, vCenter external database, and Horizon AppVolumes database. The design must provide High Availability for all databases. Which two database server options should be selected during physical design creation? (Choose two.)

A.    Oracle 10g
B.    Microsoft SQL Server 2014
C.    Oracle 11g
D.    Microsoft SQL Server 2012

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 11
Which protocol set is used to access physical workstations with high-end 3D graphics cards?

A.    Blast Extreme, PCoIP, RDP, RGS
B.    Blast Extreme, PCoIP, RDP
C.    Blast Extreme, PCoIP
D.    Blast Extreme, PCoIP, RGS

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/blast-extreme-display-protocol-vmware-horizon-7

NEW QUESTION 12
A customer wants to deploy VMware Horizon View to support virtual desktops hosted in two different physical locations and wants users to connect to the location nearest them to start a session. Which three steps must be completed to enable this functionality? (Choose three.)

A.    Initialize Microsoft DFS.
B.    Configure Global Entitlements.
C.    Configure two View Pods.
D.    Configure one View Pod spanning two sites.
E.    Configure two event logging databases.
F.    Initialize the Cloud-Pod Federation.

Answer: CEF

NEW QUESTION 13
Which three options need to be considered when implementing multiple vCenter Server in App Volumes 2.x? (Choose three.)

A.    Datastore names must be unique.
B.    Each vCenter must use the same credentials.
C.    Host names must be unique.
D.    Portgroups must be unique.
E.    Each vCenter must support Cross vCenter VMotion.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 14
Which should be used to reduce vCenter Server overhead and improve performance in a large-scale App Volumes deployment?

A.    AppToggle
B.    Mount on Host
C.    Mount Local
D.    Storage Groups

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/app-volumes-deployment-considerations

NEW QUESTION 15
An architect is deploying Horizon 7.0 on vSAN 6.2. The architect wants to take advantage of the erasure coding feature to save disk space. Each host contains 4TB of capacity flash disk. The desktop base image has 2GB of RAM and a 40GB C: drive. The cluster must support 200 concurrent users. Which two configurations satisfy requirements? (Choose two.)

A.    4-host cluster, FTT=2
B.    5-host cluster, FTT=2
C.    6-host cluster, FTT=2
D.    3-host cluster, FTT=1
E.    4-host cluster, FTT=1

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
A company produces paints and assembles bicycle frames. You must account for paint drying time before assembly operations can begin. You need to set up the operation to encompass queue times. Which two options can you use? (Each correct answer presents part of solution. Choose two.)

A.    Enter a value in the queue time after field for the painting operation.
B.    Make a resource group for each size and color and assign that group to the operation.
C.    Enter a value in the transit time on the painting operation.
D.    Enter a value in the queue time before field for the assembly operation.
E.    Build capabilities for each resource related to color.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 2
A manufacturing company is implementing Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company uses a standard costing model to value inventory. During the setup of the system, all areas that impact the standard cost of the item must be configured correctly to calculate a complete standard cost by using routing, Bill of materials (BOM) and overhead burden. You need to verify that all areas of the system are correctly configured. Which object does NOT impact the standard cost of manufactured items?

A.    item group
B.    cost groups
C.    cost categories
D.    BOM formula

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
A company is looking to use Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company is in the process of redesigning and retooling an existing manufacturing plant to group similar, cellular operations to improve efficiency and minimize wasted time between operations. They want to locate raw materials close to where they are needed without losing reorder visibility. You need to set up their environment. Which kind of production type should you implement?

A.    Lean manufacturing
B.    Process manufacturing
C.    Discrete manufacturing
D.    Manufacturing execution

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for their Lean manufacturing environment. There has been an engineering change to a fixed quantity product that is in production. This change will add an additional processing step as the second step. The existing version must be phased out and replaced by the new version. You need to ensure that the engineering change takes affect at the end of the month.
Solution:
1.) Create an activity for the new process step and add it to the existing production flow. Set the expiration date to the end of the month.
2.) Create a Kanban rule that incorporates the new activity with an effective date of end of the month.
3.) Edit the existing Kanban rule. Set the expiration date to the end of the month.
4.) Activate the new production flow.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
A manufacturing plant uses Lean process. You plan to outsource a painting operation to a subcontracting vendor. You create a service item named SP-01 to represent the painting service. You need to create a subcontracting activity for the painting service.
Solution:
1.) Create a purchase agreement for the subcontracting vendor that contains the pricing information for SP-01.
2.) Create a vendor resource and a work cell for outsourced painting, then add the resource to the work cell.
3.) Create a production flow process activity using the painting work cell and the service item as the picking activity.
4.) Create a service term on the activity to tie the purchase agreement to the activity.
Does this solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/activity-based-subcontracting

NEW QUESTION 6
You are responsible for product and formula maintenance for a paint manufacturer. You create a formula for white paint and add its lines. When the formula size increases or an ingredient changes, the quantity of the pigment ingredient must be adjusted proportionately. You need to set up the formula line for the pigment. Which formula feature should you use?

A.    Pegged supply
B.    Step consumption
C.    Scalable
D.    Variable

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/formulas-versions#use-the-scalable-feature

NEW QUESTION 7
You are building the Bill of materials (BOM) for a new production item. The new item has a subcomponent. Subproduction orders for the subcomponent must be created when estimating production orders. You need to configure the BOM line to generate subproduction orders. Which BOM line type should you use?

A.    Phantom
B.    Vendor
C.    Item
D.    Pegged supply

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/bill-of-material-bom

NEW QUESTION 8
You have a product that can be manufactured on two different production lines in the same warehouse. You create resources and then create individual input locations for the resources. You create two routes. Each route uses different resources. Materials are staged for consumption in different locations based on the resources being utilized for production. You need to set up the formula to consume the goods from the correct line-side location. What should you do?

A.    Select a warehouse and consumption operation for each line.
B.    Select resource consumption and the operation for each line.
C.    Select the plan group and consumption operation for each line.
D.    Specify a site in the formula header.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You are the production scheduler at a manufacturing company. You schedule estimated production orders and ensure that capacity is used efficiently. You have an order that must be scheduled at the resource group level and scheduled backward from the delivery date specified on the production order. You need to schedule the order. Which scheduling parameters should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/operation-scheduling-options

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
A company manufactures automobile engines. You must create product configurations for values that are used in different types of engines. Each value is based on a master valve design. Different gaskets and fittings are used to allow valves to work with different engines. You need to translate production plans into Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations elements. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 11
A chemical manufacturing company uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. A batch of material has a quality issue and must be reworked. You need to create the rework order the production. Which three options must be set? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Reserve the reworked inventory after estimation.
B.    Set the item as a Formula production type.
C.    Specify the batch number of the batch order.
D.    Set the batch order as a rework batch.
E.    Pick the reworked inventory after estimation.

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 12
A manufacturer uses discreet orders and manually consumes raw material after reporting products as finished. You are performing an end-of-month closing for remaining picking lists on production orders. You must not be required to consume the full amount of material on production order picking lists as a result of improved production efficiency. When the production manager verifies that no material is left to consume, there are remaining back-ordered amounts. You need to pick the line item short and eliminate the remaining demand. What should you do?

A.    Delete the item from the Bill of materials for the finished good.
B.    Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used, and delete the remaining amount.
C.    Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used and select end on the production order picking list.
D.    Change the Coverage group on item option to manual.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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