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[22/July/2019 Updated] 32q 5V0-31.19 VCE and PDF Exam Dumps — Must Download For 100% Passing Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which information is required when deploying a new SDDC?

A.    AWS region
B.    number of clusters
C.    credit card details
D.    instance type

Answer: A
Explanation:
To create an SDDC, pick an AWS region.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-on-AWS/services/com.vmware.vmc-aws.getting-started/GUID-EF198D55-03E3-44D1-AC48-6E2ABA31FF02.html

NEW QUESTION 2
Which two actions should an administrator take before removing a vSphere cluster from a vCenter running on VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)

A.    Disconnect all hosts in the cluster.
B.    Power off all workload VMs.
C.    Power off all hosts in the cluster.
D.    Make a copy of any data to be kept.
E.    Migrate any workload VMs to be retained to another cluster.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 3
Which VMware Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) tool is used for bulk workload migrations?

A.    VMware Secure Networking
B.    VMware Cross-Cloud Services
C.    VMware NSX Cloud
D.    VMware NSX Hybrid Connect

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
What are two ways to import VM templates to a library in VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure Hybrid Linked Mode.
B.    Initiate the failback feature of the VMware Site Recovery Manager Add-On.
C.    Install VMware vRealize Automation on the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.
D.    Use the Content Onboarding Assistant.
E.    Subscribe to an on-premises Content Library.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 5
In VMware Cloud on AWS, the datastore named vSanDatastore stores which virtual machines?

A.    vCenter Server Appliance
B.    External Platform Services Controller
C.    Universal Logical Router
D.    vCenter Server for Windows

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which API endpoint is used to manage an SDDC in a VMware Cloud on AWS instance?

A.    VMware vSphere API
B.    VMware Deployed SDDC API
C.    VMware Cloud on AWS API
D.    Cloud Service Platform API

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
What is a difference between what an Organization Owner and an Organization Member can do in VMware Cloud on AWS?

A.    create a new SDDC
B.    invite new users
C.    use the vSphere Client to manage a VM
D.    directly access each VMware Host client from the SDDC console

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two Amazon services can be used for storage? (Choose two.)

A.    Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
B.    Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)
C.    Amazon Glacier
D.    Amazon CloudWatch
E.    Amazon RedShift

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://aws.amazon.com/products/storage/

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two VMware products are installed automatically during a VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware vCenter Server
B.    VMware Horizon Connection Server
C.    VMware vSphere Data Protection
D.    VMware vRealize Operations
E.    VMware NSX Manager

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 10
What would happen to a VM on an ESXi host in a VMware Cloud on AWS cluster when a network failure is detected on the host?

A.    The cluster is put into maintenance mode.
B.    Hybrid Linked Mode migrates VMs to a new data center.
C.    On another host, the VM is powered on with vSphere HA.
D.    VM on that host is migrated to the protected site as specified in the Recovery Plan.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
……


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NEW QUESTION 457
Which two control-plane suninterface can be found in IOS_based routers that supports CPPr? (Choose two.)

A.    Rate limiting
B.    Port filtering
C.    Transit
D.    Host
E.    CoPP

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 458
Which two actions can you take to mitigate MAC attacks on Layer2 switches? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the switchport-security violation shutdown command on the truck port.
B.    Enable port security to limit the number of MAC addresses on access ports.
C.    Configure the switchport port-security violation restrict command on the truck port.
D.    Configure dynamic ARP inspection on the access port.
E.    Configure dynamic ARP inspection on the access port.
F.    Configure static MAC address on the access ports.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 459
Which command must you configure on a Cisco IOS XR or XE device to enable Cisco Prime Infrastructure to perform event-trigger backups?

A.    Snamp-server community
B.    Logging <server IP>
C.    Logging trap level
D.    Snamp-server host

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 460
Which two user privileges does ASDM allow an engineer to create? (Choose two.)

A.    Read-write
B.    Full access
C.    Admin
D.    Ready-only
E.    Write-only

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 461
Which two tasks must you perform to configure SNMPv3 on the Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the SNMP listening port.
B.    Configure a local use with privilege to use SNMP only.
C.    Configure the local user to manage the ASA.
D.    Configure a recipient for SNMP notifications.
E.    Configure an SNMP group.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 462
Which two statements about the Cisco prime Security Manager are true? (Choose two.)

A.    URL filtering is not supported.
B.    You can import existing object definitions as the basis of new policy rules.
C.    The physical appliance version and the virtual appliance version can be under the same support license.
D.    It can use AAA to identify users and handle RBAC.
E.    The primary manager handles access requests for all managed devices.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 463
Which two statements about the Cisco Security Control Framework Model are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It support IDS and IPS as components of the control objective.
B.    It relies on a redundant architecture for the core enterprise infrastructure.
C.    It support multiple security actions to provide visibility and control.
D.    It focuses on device hardening and network resiliency to enhance service availability.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 464
Which two statements about unified ACLs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They are supported for SSL and IPsec.
B.    You can use the ipv6-class command to display the sequence numbers in the ACL.
C.    You can use the show running-config access-list command to display the current-list configuration.
D.    IPv6 ACE address are defined with wildcard masks instead of CIDR notation.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 465
Which two statements about security context on the ASA are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Active/active failover is supported only in multiple context mode.
B.    Shared interfaces on an ASA in multiple context mode use different IP addresses to identify the correct context.
C.    Shared interfaces on an ASA in multiple context mode use different MAC addresses to identify the correct context.
D.    You must use an SSH connections or the Cisco ASDM to access the admin context.
E    Interfaces can be assigned to multiple context in transparent mode only.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 466
Drag and Drop
You must configure a Cisco ASA 5500 Series as an NTP client by using authentication. (Drag and drop the configuration steps from the left into the correct order on the right.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 467
Which two best practices can mitigate Layer 2 attacks on the network? (Choose two.)

A.    Disabling STP on all Layer 2 network switches to mitigate ARP attacks.
B.    Configuring dynamic ARP inspection to mitigate ARP attacks.
C.    Configuring IP source guard to mitigate CAM and DHCP starvation attacks.
D.    Disabling DTP on all user access ports to mitigate VLAN hopping.
E.    Configuring port security on the trunk port to mitigate GAM and DHCP starvation attacks.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 468
Which two statements about PVLANs are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They carry unidirectional traffic from one or more isolated VLANs downstream to the gateway router.
B.    They use VTP to distribute VLAN information across multiple Layer 2 network switches.
C.    They are marked with P in the output of the show vlan private-vlan command.
D.    When they span multiple Layer 2 switches, they must be configured manually on intermediary switches.
E.    They provide Layer 2 segregation, which allows multiple end devices to share the same IP subnet.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 469
Which fact must consider when configure protection for the firewall management plane?

A.    If you encrypt management sessions with IPsec, SSH is unnecessary.
B.    You can run a dynamic routing processing on the management-only interface and the data interface currently.
C.    You can use the management-only command to limit an interface to in-band access only.
D.    If the no service password-recovery command is configured and you forget the password, you must factory reset the firewall.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 470
Which two features are supported on the Cisco Adaptive security Virtual Appliance? (Choose two.)

A.    Clustering
B.    Site-to-site
C.    High availability
D.    Etherchannel
E.    PAK-based licensing
F.    Multiple contexts

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 471
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
A customer installed an ONTAP cluster. The customer wants to provide data access to host computers and end users. Which three tasks are required? (Choose three.)

A.    Create a Quality of Service (QoS) policy.
B.    Create an SVM.
C.    Create a LIF.
D.    Create an IPspace.
E.    Create a volume.

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 2
Which NetApp product enables you to leverage legacy storage investments?

A.    FlexClone
B.    FlexGroup
C.    Cloud Volumes ONTAP
D.    FlexArray

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
What are three tiering policies that are associated with a FabricPool-enables aggregate? (Choose three.)

A.    backup
B.    mirror-vault
C.    local-only
D.    auto
E.    snapshot-only

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-psmg%2FGUID-149A3242-B120-49CB-B712-BDDED53ED25D.html

NEW QUESTION 4
Which statement about a node-root volume is true?

A.    A node-root volume is used as the root volume for all of the SVMs for that node.
B.    The volume move command can be used to move a node-root volume.
C.    There is only one primary root volume per node in the cluster.
D.    A node-root volume may be used for customer data.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
When performing a manual MetroCluster switchover, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Only the user specified DR groups are switched over.
B.    All SVMs in the disaster site are switched over.
C.    All DR groups in the disaster site are switched over.
D.    Only the user specified SVMs are switched over.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 6
Which ONTAP feature uses the Service Processor to speed up takeover times between HA pairs?

A.    hardware-assisted takeover
B.    automatic takeover and giveback
C.    epsilon
D.    cluster HA

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2492713 (page 26)

NEW QUESTION 7
Regarding root partitioned disks in an ONTAP system, which three types of objects are associated with ADP? (Choose three.)

A.    array LUN
B.    root partition
C.    container disk
D.    data partition
E.    shared disk

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 8
You create SAN volumes with System Manager on a FAS solution. In this scenario, what are three default settings for these volumes? (Choose three.)

A.    Volumes have inline deduplication enabled.
B.    Volume space guarantee is set to Volume.
C.    Volumes have Snapshot copies disabled.
D.    Volume snapshot reserve is set to 0.
E.    Volume space guarantee is set to None.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator forgot to update the cabling sheet for a core Cisco switch and cannot recall which ports were used by the NetApp FAS system. Which command should the administrator run to obtain this information?

A.    network port show
B.    network device-discovery show
C.    network interface show
D.    network port broadcast-domain show

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://kb.netapp.com/app/answers/answer_view/a_id/1032596/~/how-to-diagnose-port-issues-in-clustered-data-ontap

NEW QUESTION 10
How would you protect a NAS SVM root volume?

A.    Create a SnapMirror copy of the root volume to a peer cluster.
B.    Create load-sharing mirrors.
C.    Create a backup the SVM configuration.
D.    Create a backup of the SVM root volume.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2496241

NEW QUESTION 11
According to NetApp best practices, when you configure FC, how many data LIFs should you create per node?

A.    4
B.    8
C.    6
D.    2

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-sanconf%2FGUID-A24C3DFB-C410-49F0-AB96-0EEA31EF8808.html

NEW QUESTION 12
A storage administrator wants to convert a switchless cluster to a switched cluster. You need to determine which switches are supported in ONTAP 9.3. In this scenario, which tool would satisfy the requirement?

A.    Config Advisor
B.    Hardware Universe
C.    OnCommand System Manager
D.    OnCommand Unified Manager

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1140535

NEW QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of Epsilon?

A.    to monitor cluster health
B.    to be used as a load-balancer for a 2-node cluster
C.    to evaluate the differences in node configurations
D.    to be used as a tie-breaker for a cluster quorum

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-sag%2FGUID-EFE1DEF4-8B87-4C4A-8E4E-C6C79F760710.html

NEW QUESTION 14
Two 100 GB space-reserved LUNs and one 100 GB non-space-reserved LUN were created in System Manager in a 1 TB volume. In this scenario, how much space has been allocated for writes to the three LUNs?

A.    1 TB
B.    300 GB
C.    100 GB
D.    200 GB

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://ppbwiki.rz-berlin.mpg.de/uploads/Intern.NetApp/semg.pdf

NEW QUESTION 15
What are three types of shells that are used in ONTAP? (Choose three.)

A.    clustershell
B.    systemshell
C.    powershell
D.    nodeshell
E.    bashshell

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196798/html/GUID-B092BE96-04C1-4A86-AA6C-D53DED94C795.html

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 349
Joe, a user, is unable to launch an application on his laptop, which he typically uses on a daily basis. Joe informs a security analyst of the issue. After an online database comparison, the security analyst checks the SIEM and notices alerts indicating certain .txt and .dll files are blocked. Which of the following tools would generate these logs?

A.    Antivirus
B.    HIPS
C.    Firewall
D.    Proxy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 350
Employees at a manufacturing plant have been victims of spear phishing, but security solutions prevented further intrusions into the network. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution in this scenario?

A.    Continue to monitor security devices.
B.    Update antivirus and malware definitions.
C.    Provide security awareness training.
D.    Migrate email services to a hosted environment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 351
A new security manager was hired to establish a vulnerability management program. The manager asked for a corporate strategic plan and risk register that the project management office developed. The manager conducted a tools and skill sets inventory to document the plan. Which of the following is a critical task for the establishment of a successful program?

A.    Establish continuous monitoring.
B.    Update vulnerability feed.
C.    Perform information classification.
D.    Establish corporate policy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 352
Malicious users utilized brute force to access a system. An analyst is investigating these attacks and recommends methods to management that would help secure the system. Which of the following controls should the analyst recommend? (Choose three.)

A.    Multifactor authentication
B.    Network segmentation
C.    Single sign-on
D.    Encryption
E.    Complexity policy
F.    Biometrics
G.    Obfuscation

Answer: AEF

NEW QUESTION 353
A cyber-incident response team is responding to a network intrusion incident on a hospital network. Which of the following must the team prepare to allow the data to be used in court as evidence?

A.    Computer forensics form
B.    HIPAA response form
C.    Chain of custody form
D.    Incident form

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 354
A user received an invalid password response when trying to change the password. Which of the following policies could explain why the password is invalid?

A.    Access control policy
B.    Account management policy
C.    Password policy
D.    Data ownership policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 355
A corporation has implemented an 802.1X wireless network using self-signed certificates. Which of the following represents a risk to wireless users?

A.    Buffer overflow attacks
B.    Cross-site scripting attacks
C.    Man-in-the-middle attacks
D.    Denial of service attacks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 356
Which of the following command line utilities would an analyst use on an end-user PC to determine the ports it is listening on?

A.    tracert
B.    ping
C.    nslookup
D.    netstat

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 357
During a quarterly review of user accounts and activity, a security analyst noticed that after a password reset the head of human resources has been logging in from multiple locations, including several overseas. Further review of the account showed access rights to a number of corporate applications, including a sensitive accounting application used for employee bonuses. Which of the following security methods could be used to mitigate this risk?

A.    RADIUS identity management
B.    Context-based authentication
C.    Privilege escalation restrictions
D.    Elimination of self-service password resets

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 358
The human resources division is moving all of its applications to an IaaS cloud. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has asked the security architect to design the environment securely to prevent the IaaS provider from accessing its data-at-rest and data-in-transit within the infrastructure. Which of the following security controls should the security architect recommend?

A.    Implement a non-data breach agreement.
B.    Ensure all backups are remote outside the control of the IaaS provider.
C.    Ensure all of the IaaS provider’s workforce passes stringent background checks.
D.    Render data unreadable through the use of appropriate tools and techniques.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 359
A threat intelligence analyst who is working on the SOC floor has been forwarded an email that was sent to one of the executives in business development. The executive mentions the email was from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), who was requesting an emergency wire transfer. This request was unprecedented. Which of the following threats MOST accurately aligns with this behavior?

A.    Phishing
B.    Whaling
C.    Spam
D.    Ransomware

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 360
The security team has determined that the current incident response resources cannot meet management’s objective to secure a forensic image for all serious security incidents within 24 hours. Which of the following compensating controls can be used to help meet management’s expectations?

A.    Separation of duties
B.    Scheduled reviews
C.    Dual control
D.    Outsourcing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 361
Which of the following describes why it is important for an organization’s incident response team and legal department to meet and discuss communication processes during the incident response process?

A.    To comply with existing organization policies and procedures on interacting with internal and external parties.
B.    To ensure all parties know their roles and effective lines of communication are established.
C.    To identify which group will communicate details to law enforcement in the event of a security incident.
D.    To predetermine what details should or should not be shared with internal or external parties in the event of an incident.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 362
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided that all accounts with elevated privileges must use a longer, more complicated passphrase instead of a password. The CISO would like to formally document management’s intent to set this control level. Which of the following is the appropriate means to achieve this?

A.    A control
B.    A standard
C.    A policy
D.    A guideline

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 363
During a physical penetration test at a client site, a local law enforcement officer stumbled upon the test questioned the legitimacy of the team. Which of the following information should be shown to the officer?

A.    Letter of engagement
B.    Scope of work
C.    Timing information
D.    Team reporting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 364
A security analyst is performing a stealth black-box audit of the local WiFi network and is running a wireless sniffer to capture local WiFi network traffic from a specific wireless access point. The SSID is not appearing in the sniffing logs of the local wireless network traffic. Which of the following is the best action that should be performed NEXT to determine the SSID?

A.    Set up a fake wireless access point.
B.    Power down the wireless access point.
C.    Deauthorize users of that access point.
D.    Spoof the MAC addresses of adjacent access points.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 365
An analyst is detecting Linux machines on a Windows network. Which of the following tools should be used to detect a computer operating system?

A.    whois
B.    netstat
C.    nmap
D.    nslookup

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 366
A security analyst has performed various scans and found vulnerabilities in several applications that affect production data. Remediation of all exploits may cause certain applications to no longer work. Which of the following activities would need to be conducted BEFORE remediation?

A.    Fuzzing
B.    Input validation
C.    Change control
D.    Sandboxing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 367
A cybersecurity analyst is investigating an incident report concerning a specific user workstation. The workstation is exhibiting high CPU and memory usage, even when first started, and network bandwidth usage is extremely high. The user reports that applications crash frequently, despite the fact that no significant changes in work habits have occurred. An antivirus scan reports no known threats. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

A.    Advanced persistent threat
B.    Zero day
C.    Trojan
D.    Logic bomb

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 368
During a tabletop exercise, it is determined that a security analyst is required to ensure patching and scan reports are available during an incident, as well as documentation of all critical systems. To which of the following stakeholders should the analyst provide the reports?

A.    Management
B.    Affected vendors
C.    Security operations
D.    Legal

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 369
Which of the following is a vulnerability that is specific to hypervisors?

A.    DDoS
B.    VLAN hopping
C.    Weak encryption
D.    WMescape

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 370
During a red team engagement, a penetration tester found a production server. Which of the following portions of the SOW should be referenced to see if the server should be part of the testing engagement?

A.    Authorization
B.    Exploitation
C.    Communication
D.    Scope

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 371
The IT department at a growing law firm wants to begin using a third-party vendor for vulnerability monitoring and mitigation. The executive director of the law firm wishes to outline the assumptions and expectations between the two companies. Which of the following documents might be referenced in the event of a security breach at the law firm?

A.    SLA
B.    MOU
C.    SOW
D.    NDA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 372
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect has configured NetScaler Gateway integration with a XenApp environment to provide access to users from two domains: vendorlab.com and workslab.com. The authentication method used is LDAP. Which two steps are required to achieve Single Sign-on StoreFront using a single store? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure Single Sign-on domain in Session profile ‘userPrincipalName’.
B.    Do NOT configure SSO Name attribute in LDAP profile.
C.    Do NOT configure sign-on domain in Session profile.
D.    Configure SSO Name attribute to ‘userPrincipalName’ in LDAP profile.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect needs to design a NetScaler deployment in Microsoft Azure. An Active-Passive NetScaler VPX pair will provide load balancing for three distinct web applications. The architect has identified the following requirements:
– Minimize deployment costs where possible.
– Provide dedicated bandwidth for each web application.
– Provide a different public IP address for each web application.
For this deployment, the architect should configure each NetScaler VPX machine to have ____ network interface(s) and configure IP address by using ____. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence).

A.    4; Port Address Translation
B.    1; Network Address Translation
C.    1; Port Address Translation
D.    2; Network Address Translation
E.    4; Network Address Translation
F.    2; Port Address Translation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which encoding type can a Citrix Architect use to encode the StyleBook content, when importing the StyleBook configuration under source attribute?

A.    Hex
B.    Base64
C.    URL
D.    Unicode

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
Which parameter must a Citrix Architect configure to ensure that HDX Proxy Connection terminates upon AAA Session TimeOut?

A.    ICA session timeout in VPN parameters.
B.    Session timeout(mins) in NetScaler gateway Session profile.
C.    Session timeout(mins) in VPN parameters.
D.    ICA session timeout in NetScaler Gateway Session profile.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which three methods can a Citrix Architect use to assess the capabilities of a network infrastructure? (Choose three.)

A.    Review existing monitoring solutions for periods of latency, lost packets, and insufficient bandwidth.
B.    Map the location of the users against the existing network topology.
C.    Alter firewall rules of existing network to fit into the new NetScaler Deployment.
D.    Examine the topology for single points of failure and potential bottlenecks.
E.    Ensure that users and computers are in the correct organizational units (OUs).

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 6
Scenario:
More than 10,000 users will access a customer’s environment. The current networking infrastructure is capable of supporting the entire workforce of users. However, the number of support staff is limited, and management needs to ensure that they are capable of supporting the full user base. Which business driver is prioritized, based on the customer’s requirements?

A.    Simplify Management
B.    Increase Scalability
C.    Increase Flexibility
D.    Reduce Costs
E.    Enable Mobile Work Styles
F.    Increase Security

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two features are supported on LBaaSv1? (Choose two.)

A.    Cookie Insertion
B.    Layer 7 Load Balancing
C.    Certificate Bundle
D.    Layer 4 Load balancing
E.    Server Name Indicator

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8
Which two NetScaler cookies indicate the validity of the Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) session for users? (Choose two.)

A.    NSC_WT
B.    NSC_TMAS
C.    NSC_AAAC
D.    NSC_TMAA

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 9
A Citrix Architect needs to define the architect and operational processes required to implement and maintain the production environment. In which phase of the Citrix Methodology will the architect define this?

A.    Define
B.    Deploy
C.    Assess
D.    Review
E.    Manage
F.    Design

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 10
Under which two circumstances will a service be taken out of the slow start phase with automated slow start? (Choose two.)

A.    The service does NOT receive traffic for three successive increment intervals.
B.    The server request rate parameters are set above 25 requests per second.
C.    The actual request rate is slower than the new service request rate.
D.    The percentage of traffic that the new service must receive is greater or equal to 50.
E.    The request rate has been incremented 100 times.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 11
Which step does a Citrix Architect need to ensure during the define phase when following the Citrix Methodology?

A.    Testing steps were integrated.
B.    The project manager agrees with road map timelines.
C.    A phased roll out was completed.
D.    Existing networking infrastructure is ready.
E.    The redundancy deployment decision was made.

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 12
For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.)

A.    Understand the skill set of the company.
B.    Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase.
C.    Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project.
D.    Determine operating systems and application usage.
E.    Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase.

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 678
An engineer wants to transport Layer 2 packets over an MPLS-based WAN network. If encryption is a requirement, which solution must the engineer use?

A.    HQoS
B.    VPLS
C.    EoMPLS
D.    IPsec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 679
ISIS is which type of routing protocol?

A.    link-state
B.    distance-vector
C.    spanning-tree
D.    static

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 680
What are three valid BGP attributes? (Choose three.)

A.    bandwidth
B.    neighbor
C.    delay
D.    next hop
E.    origin
F.    AS path

Answer: DEF

NEW QUESTION 681
Which two benefits of using a modular enterprise network design are true? (Choose two.)

A.    easy IOS services configuration
B.    ease of implementation
C.    allows unplanned network growth
D.    supports VRF for end-to-end on-net security
E.    scalable and flexible model

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 682
Traditionally, the DMZ exists between which two locations? (Choose two.)

A.    metro access
B.    building access
C.    Internet
D.    corporate network
E.    building distribution

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 683
An engineer is designing secure access for a WLAN. Which security framework creates a virtual port for each WLAN client at the AP?

A.    LEAP
B.    802.1x
C.    WPA2
D.    WPA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 684
A corporation has asked for a new design of a branch office consisting of 50 workers and 30 phones that need continual connectivity. Which two items can be included in the design to offer high availability? (Choose two.)

A.    backup configuration of branch router
B.    backup configuration of corporate router
C.    single uplink to WAN
D.    dual uplinks to WAN
E.    always be on the most up-to-date router code

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 685
Which feature do you use to identify which network nodes exchange the most traffic?

A.    interface counter
B.    SNMP
C.    NetFlow
D.    ACL counter

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 686
Which feature is improved by utilizing network modularity while designing a new enterprise network?

A.    number of devices required
B.    cost
C.    configuration management
D.    fault isolation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 687
Which design feature must be considered when the WAN bandwidth consumption and the number of wireless clients are growing in a centralized wireless network?

A.    remove APs
B.    bridging
C.    FlexConnect
D.    high density

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 688
When designing a new OSPF network, which type of router is used to control flooding of link state advertisements between logical groups of routers?

A.    Backbone Router
B.    Autonomous System Border Router
C.    Internal Router
D.    Area Border Router

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 689
Which benefit of hiding network information by using aggregation is true?

A.    It speeds up convergence.
B.    It provides an optimal path to a destination.
C.    It limits traffic directed to unknown networks.
D.    It provides specific knowledge of the network.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 690
An engineer is configuring NAC to use SNMP to control switches and set VLAN assignments for ports. Which mode must be used to accomplish this configuration?

A.    virtual bridge mode
B.    real IP gateway mode
C.    server
D.    out-of-band mode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 691
Two companies that want to connect with multiple providers vendors, what protocol is the proper one to use?

A.    BGP
B.    IS-IS
C.    OSPF
D.    EIGRP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 692
An engineer is designing an OSPF infrastructure for an organization. Which two approaches reduce the impact of a topology change? (Choose two.)

A.    applying summarization at the area border routers
B.    maintaining areas with a small number of neighbors
C.    provisioning a single area for the infrastructure
D.    designing the Area Border Routers to be in four areas
E.    tuning the hello and hold timers on each router

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 693
A small ISP is migrating to iBGP for their routing core and wants to reduce the iBGP mesh requirement into smaller subautonomous systems. Which method must be used?

A.    areas
B.    route reflectors
C.    stub areas
D.    confederations

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 694
……


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NEW QUESTION 100
Which virtual network appliance is used in a virtual environment to enforce a north-south security policy?

A.    CSR
B.    ADC
C.    VSG
D.    ASAv

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101
A cloud architect is designing a new cloud infrastructure and wants to employ security best practices in the environment. Which Cisco best practice must the engineer consider?

A.    Ensure that AAA is enforced.
B.    Minimize vulnerabilities.
C.    Minimize the total security cost.
D.    Simplify use access to the environment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102
A company is facing frequent Layer 7 attacks on its published cloud services. Which feature can be used to mitigate the company’s vulnerability?

A.    deep packet inspection
B.    access control lists
C.    control plane protection
D.    role-based access control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 103
An organization wants to simplify the support model for their private cloud by having a single number to call for support for their Cisco Nexus, UCS, and NetApp storage. Which Cisco converged infrastructure solution accomplishes this goal?

A.    FlexPod
B.    SmartStack
C.    Vblock
D.    VersaStack

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 104
Which benefit is realized by deploying a hosted cloud infrastructure on Cisco ACI?

A.    multitenancy and context-aware workflows
B.    built on OpenFlow for full ecosystem integration
C.    software-only solution built on commodity hardware
D.    created in partnership with VMware for tight integration with NSX

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 105
Which two Cisco NFV tools can be provisioned automatically using the VACS plugin on Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.)

A.    VSG
B.    Vwaas
C.    CSR
D.    vWLC
E.    ASAv

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 106
A cloud architect a customer about a new private cloud deployment. Cisco UCS Director enables which two capabilities in the environment? (Choose two.)

A.    is easier to support because of its open source nature
B.    requires less expertise for operations
C.    allows visually created automated workflows across computing resources
D.    automates Cisco infrastructure
E.    reduces configuration and administration overhead by using service profiles

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 107
When investigating cloud costs, an IT manager discovers that a different public cloud would have saved money compared to the currently chosen vendor. Which Cisco solution helps this organization make better purchasing decisions in the future?

A.    Cloud Center
B.    Application Centric Infrastructure
C.    Prime Service Catalog
D.    Cloud Lock

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 108
After a corporate merger, an IT manager must deliver a seamless experience on a multihypervisor environment. Which Cisco solution accomplishes this goal?

A.    UCS Manager
B.    Prime Infrastructure
C.    Nexus 9500
D.    UCS Director

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 109
A company that is implementing a cloud solution has purchased Cisco UCS with Cisco ONE listening, but unexpected demands have left the system nearly 100% utilized. Which cloud model must be used in these current conditions?

A.    public
B.    community
C.    hybrid
D.    private

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 110
An engineer must produce faster results in a cloud environment. Which cloud design concept increase agility in the cloud infrastructure?

A.    waterfall model of project delivery
B.    IT security governance
C.    ITSM principles
D.    automation and orchestration

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 111
An engineer is designing a new public cloud infrastructure. Which two compliance standards are met if the engineer deploys according to the Cisco VMDC architecture? (Choose two.)

A.    GLBA
B.    PCI
C.    ISO 27001
D.    HIPAA
E.    Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 112
An engineer is designing a multitenant cloud data center deployment. The engineer needs to ensure mitigation of new cyberthreats, which are continually introduced by new business processes and technology. Which design consideration must the engineer include, in order to account for this issue?

A.    next-generation IPS
B.    Cisco ACS
C.    site-to-site design
D.    Splunk

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 113
An engineer must complete a timed deployment of 100 VMs in a multitenant hybrid cloud environment. Which Cisco technology must the engineer use to complete the deployment?

A.    Data Center Automation
B.    Dynamic Fabric Automation
C.    Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D.    Cisco Prime Network Services Controller

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 114
An organization wants to reduce mistakes made in the deployment of infrastructure configuration. Which two Cisco UCS Director automation tasks accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    VM migration between private and public clouds
B.    Chargeback data analysis
C.    PSC integration for self-service IT
D.    Cisco UCS service profile deployment
E.    LUN provisioning and FC zoning

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 115
A security architect wants to prevent the introduction of a rogue DHCP server. Prevention of this issue occurs at which layer of the Cisco VMDC Cloud Security solution framework?

A.    aggregation layer
B.    virtual access layer
C.    access layer
D.    services layer
E.    WAN/edge layer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 116
Which action can an end user accomplish by using the self-service portal in Cisco UCS Director?

A.    Manage multiple Cisco UCS domains
B.    Provision a storage LUN
C.    Monitor Cisco UCS Performance
D.    Request organizational resources

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 117
A customer that is hosting a multitenant environment is implementing a security framework to harden the environment. The engineer has employed some best practices to enforce AIC and AAA throughput the environment. Which two best practices must the cloud professional use to enforce authorization? (Choose two.)

A.    security guards
B.    separation of duty
C.    biometric scanners
D.    cameras
E.    wire fencing

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 118
An engineer for a Cloud Service Provider is configuring a pair of Cisco ASA 5585 firewall devices to minimize the impact of unwanted access to the data center. Which configuration must the engineer use for the firewall pair, in order to maximize network resources?

A.    active/active mode using multicontext routed mode
B.    active/standby mode using multicontext routed mode
C.    active/standby mode using multicontext transparent mode
D.    active/standby mode using single-context routed mode
E.    active/active mode using single-context routed mode
F.    active/standby mode using single-context transparent mode

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 119
A cloud administrator is considering solutions to automate a hybrid cloud deployment. The solution requires a single pane of glass infrastructure management, monitoring, health dashboard, orchestration and self-service port. Which solution is appropriate for this environment?

A.    Cisco Enablement Platform
B.    Cisco IAC
C.    Cisco UCS Director
D.    Cisco ONE

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120
Which two scenarios require Cisco Prime Service Catalog as a front-end to Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.)

A.    The Stack View is leveraged for improved visibility.
B.    Developers must be able to create a three-tier architecture using Stack Designer.
C.    VACS has been implemented for deploying a containerized model.
D.    The self-service model is also used to order phone services.
E.    An advanced workflow is required for IT automation.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 121
……


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NEW QUESTION 112
A company has requested that vSphere Virtual Machine Encryption be included in a vSphere 6.5 deployment design to meet the security requirements specified by its compliance team. Which three design considerations would apply in this case? (Choose three.)

A.    RDM virtual machine disk configurations are NOT supported.
B.    Suspend/resume operations for an encrypted virtual machine are NOT supported.
C.    OVF Export is NOT supported for an encrypted virtual machine.
D.    Encryption performance is independent of CPU and storage speed.
E.    Cloning of encrypted virtual machine is NOT supported.

Answer: BDE

NEW QUESTION 113
A customer wants to use the Microsoft NU3 clustering feature in Unicast mode in its newly-designed environment. To meet that requirement, what security policies must be configured on the network port group?

A.    Promiscuous mode: Reject
MAC address changes: Reject
Forged transmits: Reject
Notify switches: Yes
B.    Promiscuous mode: Reject
MAC address changes: Accept
Forged transmits: Accept
Notify switches: No
C.    Promiscuous mode: Accept
MAC address changes: Reject
Forged transmits: Accept
Notify switches: No
D.    Promiscuous mode: Reject
MAC address changes: Reject
Forged transmits: Accept
Notify switches: Yes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 114
A system architect is building a design that includes three vCenter Server Appliances with 20 to 25 ESXi hosts each. The reliability of the environment is the top business priority because the company runs several applications that must be highly available. Which VMware solution provides the ability to centrally detect issues in the environment and resolve them?

A.    Set up a log collection and analysis engine such as VMware Log Insight and point all components of the vSphere environment to this engine.
B.    Enable the deactivated VMware Log Browser Service to capture and search logs in the vSphere Web Client.
C.    Use the new vSphere HTML5 client that provides multiple ways to detect and isolate issues in the environment.
D.    Use the vCenter Server Support Assistant as an easy way to create log bundles, then transfer them to VMware support for analysis and resolution.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 115
A company wants to deploy a new application based on containers. The application will be hosted on a dedicated cluster in order to guarantee resources and SLAs. Storage, networking, and compute requirements will scale linearly with the amount of users on the application. Hardware should be minimized to reduce complexity and vendor engagement but NOT allow single points of failure. Shift from CAPEX spending to OPEX. Lowering TCO is a priority. Which solution fulfill all of the customer’s requirements?

A.    Deploy an ESXi cluster with NFS-based storage.
B.    Deploy an ESXi cluster hyperconverged storage options.
C.    Deploy an ESXi cluster with Fibre Channel storage.
D.    Deploy an ESXi cluster with iSCSi-based storage.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 116
In the review of the current state of a business application, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A.    A virtual machine can be scaled up more quickly than a bare metal server.
B.    Application outages caused by known issues in the software do NOT count against the 99.9% SLA.
C.    Average latency should be monitored to ensure that application transactions never exceed 5 milliseconds.
D.    A weekly full backup and incremental every 2 hours meets an RPO of 2 hours.
E.    Separation of duties can be implemented using Role Based Access Controls (RBAC).

Answer: BCE

NEW QUESTION 117
Drag and Drop
You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 design for an organization. The organization is looking to implement a Virtual SAN into their environment. You have been tasked with determining whether a given Virtual SAN logical design decision meets the technical requirements of their infrastructure. For each Design Decision on the left drag the red Decision buttons (D1-D8) on the right and place it on the proper Technical Requirement.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 118
Drag and Drop
You have been provided with a list of requirements for a vSphere Design. For each requirement, categorize the requirement as a component of the conceptual, logical, or physical design. Drag a requirement button (R1-R8) over to the green space provided beside the corresponding Design Phase.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 119
Which of the following is not a basic component of a good design?

A.    Vision
B.    Scope
C.    Conceptual design
D.    Assumptions

Answer: C
Explanation:
The basic components of a good design are vision, scope, requirements, constraints, assumptions, and risks.

NEW QUESTION 120
Which component of a good design is described as the quantitative statement of what the project does and does not include?

A.    Scope
B.    Constraint
C.    Vision
D.    Assumption

Answer: A
Explanation:
The scope is the quantitative statement of what is included in a project, or, more pertinently, what is not included in the project.

NEW QUESTION 121
A nonfunctional requirement ____.

A.    specifies what the system should do
B.    is a detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified
C.    specifies how the system should behave
D.    is an attribute that can prevent a project from being completed

Answer: C
Explanation:
A functional requirement states something the system should do (for example, the system should process transactions). A nonfunctional requirement states how the system should behave (for example, the system should update its performance metrics every 5 seconds). An assumption is a detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified is an assumption, and a risk is an attribute that can prevent ta project from being completed.

NEW QUESTION 122
A functional requirement ____.

A.    specifies what the system should do
B.    is a detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified
C.    specifies how the system should behave
D.    is an attribute that can prevent the completion of the project

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 123
A ____ is an iterative process used to define a technical solution.

A.    constraint
B.    best practice
C.    logical design
D.    design methodology

Answer: D
Explanation:
A design methodology is an iterative process used to create a technical design.

NEW QUESTION 124
A ____ design requires IP addresses and specific hardware selections.

A.    conceptual
B.    physical
C.    logical
D.    none of the above

Answer: B
Explanation:
A conceptual design is a high-level overview of the suggested system. Logical designs show how subsystems interconnect or communicate. No attempt is made to select vendors or map out physical products; rather, the logical design shows how the suggested components align together. A physical design puts specific components and settings into place. It lists items such as vendor products, IP addresses, and specific communication protocols. A physical design is a blueprint of an architecture.

NEW QUESTION 125
Which of the following is not a reason to use virtualization?

A.    Save money
B.    Improve system performance
C.    Save time
D.    Make disaster recovery easier

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 126
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NEW QUESTION 473
What are two analysis methods of file inspection on Network-based Cisco advanced malware protection? (Choose two.)

A.    xSpero analysis
B.    Network analysis
C.    User analysis
D.    Dynamic analysis
E.    Intrusion analysis

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 474
Which description of a passive interface on a Cisco Firepower NGFW is true?

A.    Receives traffic that is specified on an NGIPS.
B.    Inaccessible when disable.
C.    Effected by firewall mode.
D.    Retransmits received traffic.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 475
An engineer is deploying AMP for the first time and cannot afford any interrupted to network traffic. Which policy types does NOT disrupted the network?

A.    Protect
B.    Server
C.    Audit
D.    tnage

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 476
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints analysis tool records file activity within a specific host?

A.    Device trajectory
B.    Prevalence
C.    File trajectory
D.    File analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 477
Which two tasks must you perform when impalement CWS on a cisco ASA or ASAV? (Choose two.)

A.    Create a new RSA key.
B.    Enable the ScanSafe feature.
C.    Browse to whoami.scansade.not to verify that web redirection is operating normally.
D.    Create an authenticating license key.
E.    Define the primary and secondary CWS proxy.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 478
Which two statements about content filters on the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A.    After you create a content filter, you can create an encryption profile to encrypt messages that match the filter.
B.    Each content filter requires one or more actions.
C.    They can be applied before a after message filters.
D.    They are applied to the message after artisan and antivirus scanning is performed.
E.    Each content filter requires one or more conditions

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 479
Which two features does Cisco trust Anchor support? (Choose two.)

A.    Secure boot
B.    Image signing
C.    Flood attack detection
D.    SYN flood detection
E.    DDoS mitigation

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 480
For which domain will the Cisco Email Security Appliance allow to 500 recepient per messages?

A.    Orange public
B.    Violet public and blue public
C.    Violet public blue and green public
D.    Red public and orange public
E.    Red public
F.    Violet public

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 481
Which capacity us exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

A.    RBAC
B.    SPERO
C.    TETRA detection engine
D.    ETHOS detection engine

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 482
An engineer is using the reporting feature on a WSA, which option must they consider about the reporting capabilities?

A.    Report can be viewed for a particular domain, user, or category.
B.    Report must be schedules manually.
C.    Report to view system activity over a specified period of time do not exist.
D.    Delete reports require a separate license.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 483
Which description of the file trajectory feature in Cisco AMP is true?

A.    Tracks information about policy updates that affect each file on a network.
B.    Excludes information about file transmissions across the network.
C.    Blocks the malware detected in a file sent across the network.
D.    Display information about the actions performed on each file on a network.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 484
A user wants to conire high availability with their Cisco Firepoer deployment, which platform allow for clustering?

A.    Virtual NGIPS
B.    All platform support clustering
C.    Cisco Firepower appliance
D.    FirePOWERE Threat Defense for ISR

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 485
Which cisco CWS traffic-redirection option is most appropriate for roaming users?

A.    WSAv connector
B.    CWS connector
C.    Cisco ASA
D.    AnyConnect

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 486
Which type of Cisco IPS deployment are you using if you are monitoring traffic with a SPAN port?

A.    Bypass deployment
B.    Tap mode deployment
C.    Passive deployment
D.    Inline deployment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 487
What are the requirements for configuring a routed interface on a Firepower 3D8140 sensor? (Choose two.)

A.    IP address
B.    HA interface
C.    Virtual router
D.    1Gbps interface
E.    10Gbps interface

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 488
Which technology does the Cisco AMP Spero detection engineer use to identify threats?

A.    Dynamic analysis
B.    Static analysis
C.    Fuzzy shahs
D.    Machine learning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 489
Which two characteristics represent a Cisco device operating in tap mode? (Choose two.)

A.    It analyzes copies of packets from the packet flow.
B.    The packet flow traverses the device.
C.    The device is deployment in a passive configuration.
D.    If a rule Is triggered, the device drops the packet.
E.    If a rule is triggered, the device generates an intrusion event.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 490
Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two.)

A.    Time-based one-time passwords
B.    Data loss prevention
C.    NetFlow
D.    Geolocation-based filtering
E.    Heunstic-based filtering

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 491
In the Cisco Security Appliance, which tool can be used to send a test email so a user can follow the flow of messages will the configuration?

A.    Recipient access table
B.    Content filter
C.    Message filter
D.    Policy trace

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 492
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NEW QUESTION 191
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domian contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a volume named Volume1. A central access policy named Policy1 is deployed to the domian. You need to apply Policy1 to Volume1. Which tool should you use?

A.    File Explorer
B.    Shared Folders
C.    Server Manager
D.    Disk Management
E.    Storage Explorer
F.    Computer Management
G.    System Configuration
H.    File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/deploy-a-central-access-policy–demonstration-steps-#BKMK_1.4

NEW QUESTION 192
You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016. Member servers run either Windows Server 2012 R2 or Windows Server 2016. Client computers run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10. You need to ensure that when users access files in shared folders on the network, the files are encrypted when they are transferred over the network.
Solution: You disable SMB 1.0 on all the computers in the domain, and then you enable the Encrypt data access option on each file share.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 193
You deploy Windows Server 2016 to a server named Server1. You need to ensure that you can run Windows Containers on Server1.
Solution: On Server1, you enable the Containers feature, and then you install the PowerShell for Docker module. You restart the server.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/deploy-containers/deploy-containers-on-server

NEW QUESTION 194
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. You deploy the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) to the network. You discover that the members of a group named FinanceAdministartors can view the password of the local Administrator accounts on the servers in an organizational unit (OU) named FinanceServers. You need to prevent the FinanceAdministartors members from viewing the local administrators’ passwords on the servers in FinanceServers. Which permission should you remove from FinanceAdministartors?

A.    all extended rights
B.    read all properties
C.    read permissions
D.    list contents

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://4sysops.com/archives/set-up-microsoft-laps-local-administrator-password-solution-in-active-directory/

NEW QUESTION 195
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You download Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit 1.0 and all the security baselines. You need to deploy one of the security baselines to all the computers in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. What should you do?

A.    Run 1gpo.exe and specify the /g parameter.
From Policy Analyzer, click Add.
B.    From Group Policy Management, create and link a Group Policy object (GPO).
Select the GPO and run the Import Settings Wizard.
C.    From Group Policy Management, click Group Policy Objects, and then click Manage Backups….
D.    From Group Policy Management, create and link a Group Policy object (GPO).
Run 1gpo.exe and specify the /g parameter.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-fs/deployment/distribute-certificates-to-client-computers-by-using-group-policy

NEW QUESTION 196
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server5 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to configure Server5 as a Just Enough Administrator (JEA) endpoint. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Generate a random Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B.    Create and export a Windows PowerShell session.
C.    Create and register a session configuration file.
D.    Deploy Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016.
E.    Create a maintenance Role Capability file.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/session-configurations
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/role-capabilities

NEW QUESTION 197
HotSpot
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain. You install the ATA Gateway on a server named Server1. To assist in detecting Pass-the-Hash attacks, you plan to configure ATA Gateway to collect events. You need to configure the query filter for event subscriptions on Server1. How should you configure the query filter? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/configure-event-collection

NEW QUESTION 198
Drag and Drop
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several Hyper-V hosts. You deploy a server named Server22 to a workgroup. Server22 runs Windows Server 2016. You need to configure Server22 as the primary Host Guardian Service server. Which three cmdlets should you run in sequence? (To answer move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabric-setting-up-the-host-guardian-service-hgs

NEW QUESTION 199
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to identify the default action for the inbound traffic when Server1 connects to the domain. Which cmdlet should you use?

A.    Get-NetIPSecRule
B.    Get-NetFirewallRule
C.    Get-NetFirewallProfile
D.    Get-NetFirewallSetting
E.    Get-NetFirewallPortFilter
F.    Get-NetFirewallAddressFilter
G.    Get-NetFirewallSecurityFilter
H.    Get-NetFirewallApplicationFilter

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/netsecurity/get-netfirewallprofile?view=win10-ps

NEW QUESTION 200
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.
Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/

NEW QUESTION 201
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NEW QUESTION 317
A company who implemented Extension Mobility notices that logout does not work or gives an error. Which configuration step must be implemented to resolve this issue?

A.    Subscribe the user device profile to the Extension Mobility service.
B.    Phone services must be modified.
C.    Modify the user profile.
D.    A phone profile must be added.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 318
On a Cisco IOS voice gateway, where is the RSVP agent enabled?

A.    voice classes
B.    DSP farm profiles
C.    dial-peer configuration
D.    Ethernet interfaces

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 319
Which QoS model uses RSVP to explicitly signal the bandwidth needs of real-time applications such as remote video and multimedia conferencing?

A.    DiffServ
B.    Best-Effort
C.    DiffServf
D.    IntServ

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 320
Which two transcoder types does Cisco Unified Communications Manager support? (Choose two.)

A.    IOS enhanced media termination point
B.    Virtual media termination point
C.    PLDM Termination point
D.    ISR termination point
E.    Media termination point hardware

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 321
In VCS, for H.323 calls, which setting must be enabled in the search rules for calls to work?

A.    Set up search rule source to All Zones.
B.    A search rule with a Mode of Any alias and a Target of the directory Expressway.
C.    Search rules must be configured with a Source of Any.
D.    Search rules configured without a Source of Any.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 322
An engineer is configuring a route pattern on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which string results in an error message?

A.    123
B.    123?
C.    123@
D.    123$

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 323
Which tool is used in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to trace the path of a call logically?

A.    Dialed Number Analyzer
B.    Real Time Monitoring Tool
C.    Log Partition Monitoring tool
D.    Diagnostic Test tool

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 324
A company is using an endpoint IX5200 dual-row, 18-seat system. Which conference device must be used?

A.    IOS gateways
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C.    Cisco TelePresence server
D.    MCU

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 325
An engineer is defining a new Cisco Unified Communications Manager group. Which two features are provided in the Cisco Unified CM group? (Choose two.)

A.    registration with different clusters in the same network
B.    system IP address
C.    prioritized list of up to two Cisco Unified CM servers
D.    Cisco Unified CM redundancy
E.    call load balancing

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 326
Through which two configurations, in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, are inbound and outbound calls routed, respectively?

A.    inbound CSS and device pools
B.    route lists and outgoing CSS
C.    inbound CSS and route groups
D.    route patterns and outgoing CSS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 327
How many full duplex timeslots does a T1 line contain?

A.    30
B.    24
C.    23
D.    31

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 328
Which IOS command do you use for PRI when you enable QSIG signaling to connect ISDN to a PBX?

A.    isdn switch-type basic-ni
B.    isdn incoming-voice voice
C.    isdn switch-type basic-qsig
D.    isdn switch-type primary-qsig

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 329
Which tool would be useful for analyzing changes or additions to an existing dial plan?

A.    DRS
B.    car
C.    QRT
D.    dna

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 330
What is the correct procedure for implementing call coverage?

A.    configure directory numbers, partitions, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups
B.    configure partitions, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot, directory numbers
C.    configure partitions, directory numbers, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot
D.    configure partitions, directory numbers, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 331
Which of these best describes the function of transformations?

A.    allow the call-routing component to modify the calling or called number
B.    identify and define the tags and operatives used in route filters
C.    configure and revise discard digits
D.    redirect calls

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 332
Which three can be assigned a partition? (Choose three.)

A.    directory number
B.    IP phone
C.    gateway
D.    route pattern
E.    translation pattern
F.    gatekeeper

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 333
Which two can be targets of a route pattern? (Choose two.)

A.    gateway
B.    gatekeeper
C.    route group
D.    route list
E.    translation pattern
F.    CTI Port

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 334
If a SIP phone has neither KPML nor a set of dial rules configured, how are digits sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for further processing?

A.    the user must press the # key
B.    the user must press the Dial softkey
C.    the user must press the enbloc softkey
D.    when the user finishes dialing, the digits will be sent automatically

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 335
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)

A.    mgcp
B.    ccm-manager config
C.    pri-group configuration on the controller
D.    mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E.    isdn 13-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F.    ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 336
Which wildcard character in a route pattern can be used to match to one or more digits in the range 0 through 9?

A.    +
B.    X
C.    !
D.    ?

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 337
Which feature allows users to use the same set of patterns to route calls out of their local gateways?

A.    standard local route group
B.    route list
C.    SIP trunking
D.    intercluster trunk

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 338
Which two phone states must contain the mobility softkey for the Cisco Mobile Connect feature? (Choose two.)

A.    on hook
B.    on hold
C.    off hook
D.    ring in
E.    connected

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 339
You want to set up a Cisco TelePresence Server 8710 cluster. Which statement is true?

A.    All blades in a cluster must be running the same version of software.
B.    Up to four blades can be clustered in version 2.2.
C.    The administrator can mix the type of blades in the cluster.
D.    The support key can be installed in a single blade during the implementation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 340
In which scenario can a software conference bridge from Cisco Unified Communications Manager be used for an audio conference?

A.    when all participants use the G.711 codec
B.    when there are only three participants
C.    when all participants use both the G.711 and G.729 codecs
D.    when only SCCP phones are used

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 341
In which two places can a calling-party transformation CSS be selected to apply transformation for calls to a phone? (Choose two.)

A.    on a softkey configuration
B.    on the phone device configuration
C.    on a route pattern
D.    on the phone line configuration
E.    on the device pool of the phone

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 342
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You are configuring a single business process flow in Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. You need to design the business process flow. What should you do?

A.    Merge peer branches to a single stage when merging branches.
B.    Span the process across 10 unique entities.
C.    Combine multiple conditions in a rule by using both the AND and OR operators.
D.    Use 40 steps per stage.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/enhance-business-process-flows-branching

NEW QUESTION 2
A company has the following business units:
– Call center
– Customer service
– Digital response
– Escalation
The security roles have not been modified. The customer service business unit is the parent of all other business units. Each business unit has its own queues. Customer service cases are routed to the appropriate individuals by using the queues. You need to ensure that a specific user within the customer service business unit can read all queues within the parent and child business units. Which security role should you assign to the user?

A.    Customer service manager
B.    Scheduler
C.    Customer service representative
D.    System customizer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
You are a customer service representative using Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. You need to identify and eliminate duplicate cases. What should you do?

A.    Configure Dynamics 365 AI for Customer Service
B.    Use business rules
C.    Merge cases
D.    Use parent-child case relationships

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
You manage Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. You need to configure automatic case creation for emails received by customers who have a support contract. What should you do?

A.    Configure service level agreements to be on hold until a call can be made to the customer.
B.    Create an automatic record creation and update rule.
Set the source type to email.
Configure the rule to send automatic email responses to customers when records are created.
C.    Create an automatic record creation and update rule.
Set the source type to service activity.
Configure the rule to send automatic email responses to customers when records are created.
D.    Create an automatic record creation and update rule.
Set the source type to email.
If a valid entitlement exists, configure the rule to create a case.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
A customer service organization plans to implement knowledge management for a custom entity named Root Cause Analysis. Users must be able to search, link, and rate knowledge articles. Users must be provided with suggested knowledge articles. You need to configure Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Navigate to the Knowledge Base Management Settings wizard.
Then, navigate to Record types and select Root Cause Analysis.
B.    Add a lookup to the article entity.
C.    In Solution Explorer, expand the Root Cause Analysis entity and select Forms.
Edit the main form and configure a knowledge base search control.
D.    In Solution Explorer, expand the Root Cause Analysis entity and select Forms.
Edit the main form and configure a subgrid for knowledge articles.
E.    In Solution Explorer, select the Root Cause Analysis entity and then select Knowledge management.

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 6
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. A case in the queue is routed to you. You will be going on a vacation. You need to assign the case to someone else. What should you do?

A.    Release the case.
B.    Route the case to another queue.
C.    Share the case.
D.    Escalate the case.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
Customer service representatives are not able to manually add service-level agreements (SLAs) to a record. You need to enable on-demand SLAs. What should you do?

A.    Configure the scope of the workflow.
B.    Publish the on-demand SLA.
C.    Activate the SLA.
D.    Request an administrator to add the SLA field to the entity form.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/define-service-level-agreements

NEW QUESTION 8
You are a customer service manager using Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. You need to restrict support to the products that a customer has purchased. What should you do?

A.    Add the product to the account.
B.    Add the products to the case.
C.    Add the products to the customer’s entitlement.
D.    Add the products to the customer.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You use Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator. You plan to create Voice of the Customer surveys. You need to determine which survey question feature is needed to complete the design of the survey. Which survey features should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate survey type in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/design-advanced-survey

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator. You must track time against enhanced service-level agreements (SLAs). You need to add a timer. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/add-timer-forms-track-time-against-enhanced-sla

NEW QUESTION 11
Your company provides clients with Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Voice of the Customer employee satisfaction surveys. The company has a standardized set of survey questions named Satisfaction Survey. You need to customize the survey for each client.
Solution: Clone the satisfaction survey and customize the questions.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/design-basic-survey#clone-or-import-an-existing-survey

NEW QUESTION 12
Your company provides clients with Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Voice of the Customer employee satisfaction surveys. The company has a standardized set of survey questions named Satisfaction Survey. You need to customize the survey for each client.
Solution: Create custom question types. Add the custom question types to a new survey. Customize the questions.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
You send surveys to customers who have opened cases within the past month. You need to send a summary of the survey results to individuals who do not have a Dynamics 365 license. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Run the summary report.
Export the report to Microsoft Excel. Send the Excel file to the users.
B.    Run the survey summary report.
Send a link to the report from within Dynamics 365.
C.    Create a dashboard of the survey summary reports and share the dashboards with the users.
D.    Create a view with the data, and then email a link.
E.    Run the survey summary report.
Print the report to a PDF file.
Send the PDF file to the users.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 14
……


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NEW QUESTION 116
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.local. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to implement a directory synchronization solution that will use password hash synchronization. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you verify the contoso.com domain name. You need to prepare the environment for the planned directory synchronization solution. What should you do first?

A.    From the public DNS zone of contoso.com, add a new mail exchanger (MX) record.
B.    From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, add contoso.com as a UPN suffix.
C.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, verify the contoso.local domain name.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the UPN suffix for all users.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant includes a user named User1. You enable Azure AD Identity Protection. You need to ensure that User1 can review the list in Azure AD Identity Protection of users flagged for risk. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which role should you add User1?

A.    Security reader
B.    Compliance administrator
C.    Reports reader
D.    Global administrator

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 118
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant. You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated. You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain and two Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants. You plan to implement directory synchronization for both Azure AD tenants. Each tenant will contain some of the Active Directory users. You need to recommend a solution for the planned directory synchronization. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Deploy two servers that run Azure AD Connect.
Then filter the users for each tenant by using organizational unit (OU)-based filtering.
B.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect.
Then specify two sync groups.
C.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect.
Then filter the users for each tenant by using organizational unit (OU)-based filtering.
D.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect.
Then filter the users for each tenant by using domain-based filtering.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-topologies#multiple-azure-ad-tenants

NEW QUESTION 120
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory admin center, you create a trusted location and a conditional access policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
This solution applies to users accessing Azure Active Directory, not to users accessing SharePoint Online. Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-and-OneDrive-for/ba-p/46678

NEW QUESTION 121
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All users have their email stored in Microsoft Exchange Online. In the mailbox of a user named User1, you need to preserve a copy of all the email messages that contain the word ProjectX. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a label and a label policy.
B.    From the Exchange admin center, create a mail flow rule.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, start a message trace.
D.    From Exchange admin center, start a mail flow message trace.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-policy-classification

NEW QUESTION 122
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You recently configured a Microsoft SharePoint Online tenant in the subscription. You plan to create an alert policy. You need to ensure that an alert is generated only when malware is detected in more than five documents stored in SharePoint Online during a period of 10 minutes. What should you do first?

A.    Enable Microsoft Office 365 Cloud App Security.
B.    Deploy Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP).
C.    Enable Microsoft Office 365 Analytics.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 123
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection. You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content. What should you do?

A.    Run the Add-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet.
B.    Create an Azure Information Protection policy.
C.    Configure the protection activation status for Azure Information Protection.
D.    Run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you don’t want all users to be able to protect documents and emails immediately by using Azure Rights Management, you can configure user onboarding controls by using the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/activate-service

NEW QUESTION 124
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you create a role group named US eDiscovery Managers by copying the eDiscovery Manager role group. You need to ensure that the users in the new role group can only perform content searches of mailbox content for users in the United States.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the New-AzureRmRoleAssignment cmdlet with the appropriate parameters.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.resources/new-azurermroleassignment?view=azurermps-6.13.0

NEW QUESTION 125
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you create a role group named US eDiscovery Managers by copying the eDiscovery Manager role group. You need to ensure that the users in the new role group can only perform content searches of mailbox content for users in the United States.
Solution: From the Security & Compliance admin center, you modify the roles of the US eDiscovery Managers role group.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 126
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. In the tenant, you create a user named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can publish retention labels from the Security & Compliance admin center. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which role group should you add User1?

A.    Security Administrator
B.    Records Management
C.    Compliance Administrator
D.    eDiscovery Manager

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/file-plan-manager

NEW QUESTION 127
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure pilot co-management. You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1. You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: Define a Configuration Manager device collection as the pilot collection. Add Device1 to the collection.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 128
You are deploying Microsoft Intune. You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune. When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error. You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You configure the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 129
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Device Management admin center, you create a trusted location and a compliance policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-and-OneDrive-for/ba-p/46678

NEW QUESTION 130
Hotspot
You have Microsoft 365 subscription. You create an alert policy as shown in the following exhibit:

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

Answer:

Explanation:
The Aggregation settings has a 120 minute window.

NEW QUESTION 131
Hotspot
You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription. A user named User1 has a mailbox in Microsoft Exchange Online. You need to log any changes to the mailbox folder permissions of User1. Which command should you run? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
To enable auditing for a single mailbox (in this example, belonging to Holly Sharp), use this PowerShell command: Set-Mailbox username -AuditEnabled $true.
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4026501/office-auditing-in-office-365-for-admins
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/set-mailbox?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 132
Your company has 10 offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers. Each office is configured as a separate subnet. You discover that one of the offices has the following:
– Computers that have several preinstalled applications
– Computers that use nonstandard computer names
– Computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled
– Computers that are in a workgroup
You must configure the computers to meet the following corporate requirements:
– All the computers must be joined to the domain
– All the computers must have computer names that use a prefix of CONTOSO
– All the computers must only have approved corporate applications installed
You need to recommend a solution to redeploy the computers. The solution must minimize the deployment time. What should you recommend?

A.    a provisioning package
B.    wipe and load refresh
C.    Windows Autopilot
D.    an in-place upgrade

Answer: A
Explanation:
By using a Provisioning, IT administrators can create a self-contained package that contains all of the configuration, settings, and apps that need to be applied to a device.
Incorrect:
Not C: With Windows Autopilot the user can set up pre-configure devices without the need consult their IT administrator.
Not D: Use the In-Place Upgrade option when you want to keep all (or at least most) existing applications.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

NEW QUESTION 133
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-and-OneDrive-for/ba-p/46678A

NEW QUESTION 134
……


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NEW QUESTION 506
Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

A.    enable DLP and select .exe and .bat file type
B.    enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy
C.    create FW rule for particular protocol
D.    tecli advanced attribute set prohibited_file_types exe,bat

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.scribd.com/document/376588955/Check-Point-Sandblast-PoC-Guide-v84

NEW QUESTION 507
The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which two processes? (Choose two.)

A.    fwd via cpm
B.    fwm via fwd
C.    cpm via cpd
D.    fwd via cpd

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 508
To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the initial settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

A.    5: Network, Host, Objects, Services, API.
B.    3: Incoming, Outgoing, Network.
C.    2: Internal, External.
D.    4: Incoming, Outgoing, Internal, Other.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131915

NEW QUESTION 509
In a ClusterXL high-availability environment, what MAC address will answer for Virtual IP in the default configuration?

A.    MAC address of Active Member.
B.    Virtual MAC Address.
C.    MAC Address of Standby Member.
D.    MAC Address of Management Server.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

NEW QUESTION 510
What tool exports the Management Configuration into a single file?

A.    CPConfig_Export
B.    Backup
C.    Upgrade_Export
D.    migrate export

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 511
Which of the following process pulls applications monitoring status?

A.    fwd
B.    fwm
C.    cpwd
D.    cpd

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638

NEW QUESTION 512
SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes: ____.

A.    using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only
B.    detect only
C.    inline/prevent or detect
D.    as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the we traffic flow only

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 513
What utility would you use to configure route-based VPNs?

A.    vpn shell
B.    vpn tu
C.    vpn sw_topology
D.    vpn set_slim_server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 514
What SmartEvent component creates events?

A.    Consolidation Policy
B.    Correlation Unit
C.    SmartEvent Policy
D.    SmartEvent GUI

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 515
In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

A.    fw ctl sdstat
B.    fw ctl affinity -l -a -r -v
C.    fw ctl multik stat
D.    cpinfo

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 516
How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

A.    10 interfaces
B.    3 interfaces
C.    4 interfaces
D.    5 interfaces

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/Enterprise-Appliances-and-Gaia/R80-x-Performance-Tuning-Tip-Multi-Queue/td-p/41608

NEW QUESTION 517
Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

A.    Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161.
B.    Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116.
C.    Quicker than Full Sync.
D.    Transfers changes in the Kernel labels between cluster members.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 518
SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

A.    Analyzes this log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy.
When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.
B.    Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.
C.    Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.
D.    Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 519
What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.    Threat Emulation
B.    Threat Simulation
C.    Threat Extraction
D.    Threat Cloud

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 520
How can you see historical data with cpview?

A.    cpview -d <timestamp>
B.    cpview -t <timestamp>
C.    cpview -f <timestamp>
D.    cpview -e <timestamp>

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OjsvuT2YxKs

NEW QUESTION 521
Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Servers showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

A.    $FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf
B.    $FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf
C.    $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D.    $FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 522
How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?

A.    up to 1 minutes
B.    within seconds cleaned file will be provided
C.    up to 5 minutes
D.    up to 3 minutes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 523
For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

A.    Collision
B.    Down
C.    Lagging
D.    Never been synchronized

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/13132

NEW QUESTION 524
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot: ____.

A.    fw ctl multik set_mode 1
B.    fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on
C.    fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable
D.    fw ctl multik set_mode 9

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk105762

NEW QUESTION 525
How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

A.    cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1
B.    clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1;
C.    cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1
D.    fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 526
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two business model canvas building blocks are relevant to the VPC? (Choose two.)

A.    cost structure
B.    value proposition
C.    resources
D.    customer segment
E.    revenue streams

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
What does “A” stand for in the RACI matrix?

A.    accountable
B.    appropriate
C.    actionable
D.    achievable

Answer: A
Explanation:
RACI is an acronym derived from the four key responsibilities most typically used: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Responsibility_assignment_matrix

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two business activities in Porter’s business value chain are primary activities instead of support activities? (Choose two.)

A.    human resource management
B.    inbound logistics
C.    technological development
D.    marketing and sales
E.    firm infrastructure

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://www.mindtools.com/pages/article/newSTR_66.htm

NEW QUESTION 4
Which two steps are part of the Seven Elements Framework? (Choose two.)

A.    know personal history
B.    relationship
C.    compromise
D.    detailed talk track
E.    options

Answer: BE
Explanation:
https://www.pon.harvard.edu/tag/seven-elements/

NEW QUESTION 5
With regard to customer journey mapping, which factor has the greatest impact on how a customer feels about an organization?

A.    moments of truth
B.    low price guarantee
C.    best customer service
D.    ease of doing business

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
When you write a business proposal, which two types of information must you consider? (Choose two.)

A.    a business motivation model
B.    the Seven Elements Framework
C.    direct and indirect benefits
D.    risk identification and risk management
E.    a business model canvas

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 7
Which tool do you use to establish a process for communication planning?

A.    Value Proposition Canvas
B.    Seven Elements Framework
C.    Business System Model
D.    Business Proposal

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which aspect of a business do KPI measure?

A.    regulatory compliance
B.    the key priorities of an organization
C.    the quality of how an organization performs
D.    progress against tactical goals

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
What is an outcome of opportunity validation?

A.    the value proposition
B.    the cost structure
C.    the appropriate personnel to involve
D.    customer knowledge of the business

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
Which tool focuses on enabling customers to spend the least amount of time to reach their goal?

A.    lean consumption model
B.    lean service management
C.    culture map
D.    customer journey map

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
What are two the two best times to create a capability gap analysis? (Choose two.)

A.    during the Research and Analyze phase of business focus
B.    during the Develop and verify phase of business focus
C.    during the Design phase of technical focus
D.    during the Discover phase of technical focus
E.    after you complete the BMC

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 12
Which definition of gross profit is true?

A.    financial consequences of investments and actions
B.    capital and operating expenditures
C.    income that remains after considering the cost of goods sold
D.    administration and sales expenses necessary to run day-to-day operations

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
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NEW QUESTION 930
Which two components does the IS-IS IPv4 Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute feature fail to protect? (Choose two.)

A.    ECMP
B.    port channel
C.    downstream path
D.    subinterface
E.    MPLS TE tunnels

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 931
Which three common use cases for customers using multiple cloud providers are true? (Choose three.)

A.    bandwidth
B.    high availability
C.    feature disparity
D.    security
E.    analytics
F.    regional cloud provider access

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 932
Which statement describes the purpose of the EOBC links on an nV Edge solution using Cisco ASR 9000 Series?

A.    synchronize control plane state information
B.    provide backup transport of data plane traffic
C.    prevent split-brain behavior in case of other link loss
D.    provide primary transport of data plane traffic

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 933
An engineer finds out that two LSRs do not reach an agreement on LDP neighborship session. Which mechanism prevents these two LSRs from engaging in an unthrottled sequence of session setup failures?

A.    discovery transport-address
B.    instance-tlv
C.    LDP backoff
D.    LCC

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 934
BGP is used for PE-CE routing protocol and all CEs in the same VPN use the same AS number. Which command can be applied on PE router that eliminates the need to configure the AS override feature for the service provider in order to provide full connectivity amongst all CEs in the same VPN?

A.    neighbor allowas-in
B.    neighbor SoO
C.    maximum-paths ibgp maximum-number
D.    neighbor internal-vpn-client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 935
Which two statements about MPLS LDP Session Protection are true? (Choose two.)

A.    LDP session protection can be applied onto to a directly connected neighbor.
B.    LDP label bindings must be re-advertised when the directly connected link comes back.
C.    LDP session stays up as long as the LDP peer is reachable after a network failure.
D.    MPLS LDP session protection uses LDP targeted hellos.
E.    MPLS LDP session protection and LDP IGP synchronization are mutually exclusive features.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 936
OSPF is enabled on PE-to-CE links. To ensure that OSPF routes from CE routers are seen as OSPF interarea routes access the backbone, which type of configuration should be deployed on the PE routers?

A.    the same domain ID value on both PE routers
B.    down bit set for all LSA interarea
C.    the same Site of Origin value on both PE routers
D.    a sham link between PE routers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 937
During a failure, which BGP features forces subsecond convergence to an alternate path?

A.    Prefix-Independent Convergence.
B.    Aggressive BGP keepalive and holdtime timers.
C.    Bidirectional Forwarding Detection.
D.    BGP scanner timer reduced to minimal.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 938
An engineer has a requirement to implement OSPFv3 in such a way that modifying IP subnets within the domain does not affect the integrity of the SPF tree. Which specific LSA enables the engineer to avoid a forced SPF recalculation?

A.    interarea prefix LSA
B.    group membership LSA
C.    intra-area prefix LSA
D.    link LSA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 939
In which scenario can you host the most instances on a server?

A.    using microservices application
B.    using containers in virtual machines
C.    using only containers
D.    using only virtual machines
E.    using virtual machines in containers

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 940
Which two attributes about BFD are true? (Choose two.)

A.    implemented only on route processors
B.    increases the control plane CPU load
C.    implemented on line cards
D.    detects forwarding failures in milliseconds
E.    more CPU intensive than routing protocol adjacency messages

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 941
The network operation center is receiving an excessive number of BFD alerts. This is due to recently configured high-speed links that result in BGP session teardown. Engineers tried to modify the BFD timers, but no improvement was noticed. Which action maximizes network stability?

A.    enable the BFD Dampening feature
B.    fully remove the BFD configuration
C.    modify the IGP hello timers
D.    enable the BGP Dampening feature

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 942
Which three parameters should be checked when you are troubleshooting DWDM technology? (Choose three.)

A.    out-of-multiframe
B.    signal-to-noise-ratio
C.    loss of pointer
D.    crosstalk
E.    channel power
F.    wavelength

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 943
Which three PIM RP modes does IPv6 multicast support? (Choose three.)

A.    BGP MDT
B.    static RP
C.    embedded RP
D.    anycast RP
E.    auto RP
F.    BSR

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 944
Which component is a correct G.8032 RPL type/node?

A.    RPL peer node
B.    RPL owner node
C.    RPL uplink node
D.    RPL next-peer node

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 945
Which description of SaaS is true?

A.    a service offering a software environment in which applications can be build and deployed
B.    a service offering on-demand software downloads
C.    a service offering that allowing developers to build their own applications
D.    a service offering on-demand licensed applications for end users

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 946
Which MLDv1 message is the equivalent of the IGMP Leave message?

A.    finish
B.    leave
C.    report
D.    done

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 947
An engineer needs to apply an SMU on a Cisco ASR 9000 device. Which high-availability capability minimize the impact of applying an SMU?

A.    install activate
B.    ISSU
C.    graceful restart
D.    NSF
E.    NSR

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 948
Which action enables an IPv6 multicast router on a subnet with locally attached receivers to quickly determine if there is a need to send traffic for a certain multicast group out to that subnet?

A.    Adjust the MLD report interval on the router.
B.    Activate IGPMv3 snooping and fast-leave.
C.    Enable the MLDv2 explicit-tracking feature.
D.    Decrease the ICMPv4 multicast query timer.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 949
Which three Layer 2 VPN pseudowire components are true? (Choose three.)

A.    attachment circuit
B.    bandwidth requirement
C.    route distinguisher
D.    virtual circuit label
E.    pseudowire identifier
F.    route target

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 950
Which two protocols can be used for resilience in a Digital Building Ring topology? (Choose two.)

A.    IS-IS
B.    LLDP
C.    REP
D.    CDP
E.    STP

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 951
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NEW QUESTION 77
Your company has a main office and a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to enforce Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) by using conditional access for all users who are NOT physically present in the office. What should you include in the configuration?

A.    a user risk policy
B.    a sign-in risk policy
C.    a named location in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D.    an Azure MFA Server

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition

NEW QUESTION 78
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 subscription. You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP). You need to integrate Microsoft Office 365 Threat Intelligence and Windows Defender ATP. Where should you configure the integration?

A.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Settings, and then select Services & Add-ins.
B.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, select Threat management, and then select Explorer.
C.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Reports, and then select Security & Compliance.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, select Threat management and then select Threat tracker.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/integrate-office-365-ti-with-wdatp

NEW QUESTION 79
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server and have advanced auditing enabled. The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using standalone sensors. You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created. What should you do?

A.    Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security & Compliance center.
B.    Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C.    Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D.    Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

NEW QUESTION 80
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that includes a user named User1. You have a conditional access policy that applies to Microsoft Exchange Online. The conditional access policy is configured to use Conditional Access App Control. You need to create a Microsoft Cloud App Security policy that blocks User1 from printing from Exchange Online. Which type of Cloud App Security policy should you create?

A.    an app permission policy
B.    an activity policy
C.    a Cloud Discovery anomaly detection policy
D.    a session policy

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/session-policy-aad

NEW QUESTION 81
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a user named User1. Several users have full access to the mailbox of User1. Some email messages sent to User1 appear to have been read and deleted before the user viewed them. When you search the audit log in Security & Compliance to identify who signed in to the mailbox of User1, the results are blank. You need to ensure that you can view future sign-ins to the mailbox of User1.
Solution: You run the Set-Maibox -Identity “User1” -AuditEnabled $true command.
Does that meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/set-mailbox?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 82
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a user named User1. Several users have full access to the mailbox of User1. Some email messages sent to User1 appear to have been read and deleted before the user viewed them. When you search the audit log in Security & Compliance to identify who signed in to the mailbox of User1, the results are blank. You need to ensure that you can view future sign-ins to the mailbox of User1.
Solution: You run the Set-AuditConfig -Workload Exchange command.
Does that meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-audit/set-auditconfig?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 83
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1. The files in Site1 are protected by using Microsoft Azure Information Protection. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you create a label that designates personal data. You need to auto-apply the new label to all the content in Site1. What should you do first?

A.    From PowerShell, run Set-ManagedContentSettings.
B.    From PowerShell, run Set-ComplianceTag.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a Data Subject Request (DSR).
D.    Remove Azure Information Protection from the Site1 files.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/apply-labels-to-personal-data-in-office-365

NEW QUESTION 84
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to be notified by email whenever an administrator starts an eDiscovery search. What should you do from the Security & Compliance admin center?

A.    From Search & Investigation, create a guided search.
B.    From Events, create an event.
C.    From Alerts, create an alert policy.
D.    From Search & Investigation, create an eDiscovery case.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/alert-policies

NEW QUESTION 85
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. A security manager receives an email message every time a data loss prevention (DLP) policy match occurs. You need to limit alert notifications to actionable DLP events. What should you do?

A.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the Policy Tips of a DLP policy.
B.    From the Cloud App Security admin center, apply a filter to the alerts.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the User overrides settings of a DLP policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the matched activities threshold of an alert policy.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/alert-policies

NEW QUESTION 86
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create and run a content search from the Security & Compliance admin center. You need to download the results of the content search. What should you obtain first?

A.    an export key
B.    a password
C.    a certificate
D.    a pin

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/export-search-results

NEW QUESTION 87
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Auditing is enabled. A user named User1 is a member of a dynamic security group named Group1. You discover that User1 is no longer a member of Group1. You need to search the audit log to identify why User1 was removed from Group1. Which two actions should you use in the search? (To answer, select the appropriate activities in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance

NEW QUESTION 88
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E5 license. How long will auditing data be retained?

A.    30 days
B.    90 days
C.    365 days
D.    5 years

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance

NEW QUESTION 89
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You create a retention policy and apply the policy to Exchange Online mailboxes. You need to ensure that the retention policy tags can be assigned to mailbox items as soon as possible. What should you do?

A.    From Exchange Online PowerShell, run Start-RetentionAutoTagLearning.
B.    From Exchange Online PowerShell, run Start-ManagedFolderAssistant.
C.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
D.    From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a label policy.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

NEW QUESTION 90
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to ensure that users can manually designate which content will be subject to data loss prevention (DLP) policies. What should you create first?

A.    A retention label in Microsoft Office 365.
B.    A custom sensitive information type.
C.    A Data Subject Request (DSR).
D.    A safe attachments policy in Microsoft Office 365.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/manage-gdpr-data-subject-requests-with-the-dsr-case-tool#more-information-about-using-the-dsr-case-tool

NEW QUESTION 91
……


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NEW QUESTION 706
What are two base components of both a source-based remotely triggered black hole and a destination-based remotely triggered black hole filtering solution? (Choose two.)

A.    NetFlow
B.    static route withthe next hop pointing to the Null0 interface
C.    infrastructure access list
D.    triggered IBGP update setting next hop to a predetermined, unused IP address
E.    uRPF

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 707
Which routing protocol requires minimal reconfiguration when establishing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN over DMVPN encrypted using GETVPN?

A.    OSPF
B.    RIP
C.    IS-IS
D.    BGP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 708
The campus consists of four main buildings with a single router at each location. A single Ethernet connection exists between each building. Which two EIGRP metrics should be made equal in the network redesign to ensure proper load sharing? (Choose two.)

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Load
C.    Delay
D.    Reliability

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 709
Which option is best suited to maintain Layer 3 separation in a multitenant data center design?

A.    VXLAN
B.    VRF
C.    VDC
D.    VLAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 710
What is the key design principle for the core layer when using a classic hierarchical network model?

A.    It is designed first, followed by thedistribution layer and then the access layer.
B.    It controls access to resources for security.
C.    It provides server access in asmall campus.
D.    It should be configured with minimal complexity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 711
Which statement about TAP and TUN devices, which are used in a Linux/KVM cloud deployment model, is true?

A.    TUN is for handing IP packets, but TAP is for handing Ethernet frames.
B.    TUN is for handing Ethernet frames, but TAP is for handing IP packets.
C.    TUN is for tunneling IP packets, but TAP is for tapping IP packets.
D.    TUN is for tunnelingEthernet frames, but TAP is for tapping Ethernet frames.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 712
Which two statements define some of the general characteristics of SDN? (Choose two.)

A.    Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between the control plane and the date plane.
B.    OpenFlow isconsidered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
C.    Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the date plane.
D.    The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
E.    OVSDB is an application database management protocol.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 713
A retail company has 250 branches connected to the core via MPLS Layer 3 VPN. The company is migrating from traditional telephony services to a VoIP solution. Which two primary concerns when implementing a VoIP solution are true? (Choose two.)

A.    jitter
B.    available bandwidth
C.    call routing design
D.    call routing design
E.    MTU
F.    SRST

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 714
A customer uses OSPF and BGP in their network. Which solution will continue forwarding packets during a temporary failure of a P node?

A.    Deploy MPLS TE
B.    Enable BGP Flowspec
C.    Enable NSF/GR for OSPF
D.    Deploy IS-IS an IGP instead of OSPF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 715
Which three factors effects the convergence times in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)

A.    OSPF SPF throttling timers
B.    OSPF pacing timers
C.    OSPF LSA throttling
D.    LSA refresh interval
E.    DR/BDR election
F.    OSPF LSA lifetime

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 716
Video traffic is being distributed across a large WAN network. The video source originates from different parts of the multicast domain at different times. Which multicast technology provides optimal path selection between the receiver and the source for this multicast traffic?

A.    Source Specific Multicast
B.    PIM sparse mode
C.    Bidirectional PIM
D.    Any Source Multicast

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 717
What are three common objectives for customers using multiple cloud providers? (Choose three.)

A.    high availability
B.    bandwidth
C.    security
D.    analytics
E.    feature disparity
F.    regional provider access

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 718
For which two reasons would you deploy an IDS sensor in promiscuous mode when designing a security solution? (Choose two.)

A.    The solution stops malicious traffic from reaching its intended target.
B.    The solution allows denying packets inline.
C.    The solution is resistant to sensor failure.
D.    The solution allows for stream normalization.
E.    The solution allows for signature-based pattern matching.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 719
Today most of the enterprises are selecting container technologies that require integration with their existing data centers and infrastructure solutions. With which three factors do enterprises most commonly struggle to enable their current IT operations staff with? (Choose three.)

A.    compliance
B.    data security
C.    performance and availability
D.    cost avoidance
E.    virtualization
F.    data analytics
G.    scalability

Answer: BCG

NEW QUESTION 720
Which two pain points are the most common for container technology adoption? (Choose two.)

A.    container deployment
B.    security
C.    skilled staff
D.    cost
E.    compliance
F.    performance

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 721
An enterprise company is attaching to a new Gigabit Ethernet-based link from the local service provider. This connection must have a 150 Mbps committed information rate. For the design of this new service, which QoS mechanism must be used to ensure low packet loss within the service provider network?

A.    policing
B.    LLQ
C.    shaping
D.    CBWFQ

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 722
Which statement about traffic shaping is true?

A.    It works by minimizing data transmission intervals.
B.    It separates data packets based on certain characteristics by using NBAR.
C.    It regulates data transmission patterns into the network.
D.    It enforces an upper limit on bursty data traffic.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 723
A large enterprise network runs IS-IS. There is a concern that the IS-IS default metrics are not flexible enough. Which IS-IS feature enables increased granularity for traffic on the network?

A.    IS-IS Wide Metrics
B.    IS-IS DIS
C.    IS-IS Multitopology
D.    IS-IS route leaking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 724
Which two devices are open-source SDN controllers? (Choose two.)

A.    Big Cloud Fabric
B.    OpenDaylight
C.    Virtual Application Networks SDN Controller
D.    Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E.    OpenContrail

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 725
When designing a network that uses IPsec, which technique is suggested to avoid network fragmentation?

A.    Reduce the MTU on the side closest to the server.
B.    Reduce the MTU on both ends of the TCP connection.
C.    Reduce the MTU on the side closest to the client.
D.    Reduce the MTU only in the WAN.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 726
Which solution provides an active/active alternative to spanning-tree?

A.    RSTP
B.    TRILL
C.    MST
D.    Ethernet Ring Protection Switching

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 727
When is it required to leak routes into an IS-IS Level 1 area?

A.    when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and non-backbone areas
B.    when a multicast RP is configured in the non-backbone area
C.    when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and non-backbone areas
D.    when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 728
A financial trading organization plans to monitor the network latency for multicast market data feeds on a hop-by-hop basis. Which technology must be added to their design to support requirement?

A.    NBAR
B.    IPFIX
C.    PTP
D.    SPAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 729
When designing fast convergence on a network using a loop-free alternate, on which two bases can the next-hop routes be precomputed? (Choose two.)

A.    per neighbor
B.    per failure type
C.    per prefix
D.    per link
E.    per network type

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 730
Which markup language is used to format Ansible’s playbook?

A.    ADML
B.    YAML
C.    XML
D.    HTML
E.    NAML

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 731
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the optical technology design characteristics on the left to the correct optical technologies on the right. Not all options are used.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 732
Which ISAKMP feature can be used to reduce device CPU load by not sending keepalive messages for known active ISAKMP security associations?

A.    DPD
B.    IKEv2
C.    SPI
D.    Main Mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 733
A large enterprise network has two data centers and a WAN edge in a hub-and-spoke network topology. The entire network is in a single OSPF area. Spoke routers are connected to unreliable WAN links. Which two changes must be made to deploy LSA filtering on the spoke routers? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure the hub routers as ASBRs.
B.    Keep the spoke routers in normal areas.
C.    Configure the hub routers as ABRs.
D.    Place spoke routers in totally stubby areas.
E.    Place spoke routers in stub areas.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 734
The BGP table contains hundreds of thousands of routes. Which design technique improves the convergence time?

A.    Enable TCP path MTU discovery to every neighbor.
B.    Use TCP ports higher than 1024 for your BGP sessions.
C.    Deploy BGP route reflectors instead of full-mesh iBGP.
D.    Deploy BGP confederations within your backbone.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 735
You must make IGP redesign recommendation for a client that has old equipment, with low CPU power and memory, that they do not have budget to replace. They are very concerned about CPU load on the routers. They are using IS-IS as the IGP in a single Layer 1 area and all routers are connected to each other with point-to-point links. Which method do you recommend to reduce or limit CPU overhead caused by IS-IS?

A.    Implement wide style metrics for IS-IS on all routers.
B.    Use mesh groups to limit flooding of LSAs.
C.    Select a router to act as a pseudonode to limit topology synchronization.
D.    Divide the routers into multiple areas and implement address summarization.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 736
……


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[15/Aug/2019 Updated] New Update PassLeader 300-175 Exam VCE And PDF Dumps

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NEW QUESTION 406
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)

A.    proprietary and secure
B.    fast route convergence
C.    support for ECMP
D.    support for LACP
E.    support for large hop limit

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 407
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)

A.    OTV
B.    FabricPath
C.    BPDU
D.    vPC
E.    VDC
F.    MPLS

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 408
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)

A.    port channel
B.    static pinning
C.    virtual port channel
D.    dynamic pinning
E.    Equal-Cost Multipath
F.    RPVST

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 409
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?

A.    port channel
B.    static pinning
C.    virtual port channel
D.    dynamic pinning
E.    Equal-Cost Multipath
F.    RPVST

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 410
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions. Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Clustered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 411
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Asymmetric Server Normalization

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 412
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Nexus 1010
B.    VSM
C.    VEM
D.    host vPC
E.    MPIO

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 413
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.    VM-FEX
B.    NPIV
C.    Adapter-FEX
D.    NIV
E.    host vPC
F.    NIC teaming

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 414
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC?

A.    VM-FEX
B.    NPIV
C.    Adapter-FEX
D.    NIV
E.    host vPC
F.    NIC teaming

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 415
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switch port?

A.    Host vPC+
B.    Linksec
C.    MACsec
D.    LACP
E.    IPsec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 416
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?

A.    A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B.    A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C.    A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D.    A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)

A.    space availability
B.    power capacity
C.    cooling capacity
D.    PCI compliance
E.    application performance

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 418
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?

A.    high-availability during fabric failover
B.    proper placement of server role
C.    over committing CPU resources
D.    additional virtual machine scalability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 419
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Windows XP
B.    Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C.    OS X
D.    VMware vSphere 4.0
E.    VMware vSphere 5.0

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 420
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)

A.    federation and VSAN scoping
B.    VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C.    fabric performance monitoring
D.    event lookup
E.    VSAN zoning

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 421
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? (Choose three.)

A.    packet capture
B.    packet decode
C.    filter and error scan
D.    configure virtual machine
E.    configure Cisco UCS Manager

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 422
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?

A.    packet debug
B.    troubleshoot performance
C.    traffic analysis
D.    API management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 423
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)

A.    export destination IP address
B.    source interface
C.    UDP port number
D.    TCP port number
E.    NAT port number

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 424
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?

A.    32-bit dotted hex
B.    48-bit dotted hex
C.    64-bit dotted hex
D.    128-bit dotted hex
E.    160-bit dotted hex

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 425
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?

A.    FCoE
B.    DCBX
C.    FIP
D.    distributed FCF
E.    802.1Qbb

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 426
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?

A.    GLBP
B.    VRRP
C.    HSRP
D.    SSO
E.    NSF

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 427
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?

A.    MPLS
B.    OTV
C.    FabricPath
D.    vCenter
E.    RPVST
F.    MST

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 428
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?

A.    PAgP port channel
B.    LACP
C.    vPC
D.    vPC+
E.    host vPC

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 429
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer. Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?

A.    Transparent
B.    One-Arm
C.    Routed
D.    Inline
E.    Asymmetric Server Normalization

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 430
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?

A.    OSPF peer authentication
B.    OSPF route authentication
C.    OSPF process authentication
D.    OSPF database exchange authentication

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 431
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?

A.    data center location
B.    support for heterogeneous compute environments
C.    a collapsed core and distribution layer
D.    choice of a hypervisor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 432
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements?

A.    cloud compute
B.    storage
C.    desktop
D.    network

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 433
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?

A.    OTV
B.    MPLS
C.    LISP
D.    ACE

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 434
Which web browser does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    Microsoft Internet Explorer 6.0 or higher
B.    Safari
C.    Google Chrome 21.xx or higher
D.    Safari 5.0
E.    Mozilla Firefox 3.x or lower

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 435
Which two match fields does Cisco NX-OS use as the defaults when you create a flow record? (Choose two.)

A.    match interface input
B.    match interface output
C.    export destination IP address
D.    TCP port number
E.    export format

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 436
……


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NEW QUESTION 744
Which of the following network topologies is primarily used to connect servers to large network disk arrays?

A.    SAN
B.    MAN
C.    CAN
D.    PAN
E.    LAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 745
A human resources manager notifies the IT manager the night before an employee will be terminated so the employee’s access rights can be removed. Which of the following policies is being exercised?

A.    Privileged user agreement
B.    AUP
C.    Non-disclosure agreement
D.    Offboarding

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 746
Which of the following protocols are used to configure an email client to receive email? (Choose two.)

A.    IMAP
B.    SMTP
C.    POP
D.    SFTP
E.    TFTP

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 747
A company runs Linux servers In its own datacenter and also on a popular public cloud service provider. The servers hosted by the cloud provider can only be accessed with proper authorization and are only accessed by the company’s datacenter. Which of the following BEST describes the type of cloud architecture being used? (Choose two.)

A.    Private
B.    Hybrid
C.    Public
D.    laaS
E.    PaaS
F.    SaaS

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 748
The help desk is receiving reports of intermittent connections to a server. A help desk technician suspects the server Is unable to establish a three-way handshake due to a DoS attack. Which of the following commands should a network administrator use to confirm the help desk technician’s claim?

A.    nmap
B.    arp
C.    tcpdump
D.    dig

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 749
A company recently completed construction of a new remote office. The network administrator needs to set up new network devices, such as printers and a local file server, at the remote location. The new devices need to be configured on the same Layer 2 network as the main office. Which of the following should the network administrator configure?

A.    Remote desktop gateway
B.    Transport mode IPSec
C.    SSH tunneling
D.    TLS VPN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 750
Which of the following BEST describes the functionality of the root guard feature on a switch?

A.    BPDUs entering the root bridge are Ignored.
B.    The STP root bridge cannot be changed.
C.    Broadcast storms entering from a root port are blocked.
D.    Loop protection Is enabled on the root port of a switch.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 751
A technician discovered a company computer had a virus but was unable to remove it. The technician decided to erase the hard drive to eliminate the threat .Which of the following policies did the technician violate?

A.    Data loss prevention
B.    Incident response
C.    Asset disposal
D.    Acceptable use

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 752
A company hires another firm to test the integrity of its information security controls. This is an example of what?

A.    role separation.
B.    device hardening
C.    risk assessment
D.    penetration testing.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 753
A technician is moving a company to a cloud email service. Several external recipients are reporting that email sent from the company is going to their junk folders because the sender’s identity cannot be verified. Which of the following DNS record types should the technician modify to minimize this problem?

A.    CNAME
B.    PTR
C.    TXT
D.    SRV

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 754
Before upgrading the firmware on several routers, a technician must verify the firmware file received is the same one the vendor provided. Which of the following should the technician use?

A.    3DES encryption
B.    SSL certificate
C.    Digital signatures
D.    MD5 hash

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 755
A vulnerability that would allow an unauthenticated. remote attacker to originate a DoS attack was found in a DHCP client implementation of a switch. Which of the following would BEST resolve the issue?

A.    Verity the default passwords have been changed.
B.    Upgrade to the latest firmware.
C.    Generate new SSH keys.
D.    Review and modify the firewall rules.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 756
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue routing TCP packets to an email server. At which of the following OSI layers is the issue occurring?

A.    Layer 1 – Physical
B.    Layer 3 – Network
C.    Layer 4 – Transport
D.    Layer 7 – Application

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 757
A vendor is installing an Ethernet network in a new hospital wing. The cabling is primarily run above the ceiling grid near air conditioning ducts and sprinkler pipes. Which of the following cable types is required for this installation’?

A.    Plenum
B.    PVC
C.    Single-mode
D.    Cat 7

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 758
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided to implement a secure and user-friendly way to connect to the corporate wireless network Each workstation will be authenticated individually using a unique certificate that will be deployed to the workstation by the organization’s certificate authority. Which of the following authentication methods would meet this requirement?

A.    PEAP
B.    WP2-PSK
C.    Captive portal
D.    EAP-TLS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 759
Which of the following can be used to prevent unauthorized employees from entering restricted areas?

A.    Sign-in sheets
B.    Video cameras
C.    Motion sensors
D.    Swipe badges

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 760
Which of the following is the physical location where the customer-premise equipment comes together with the ISP or third-party telecommunications equipment?

A.    Server room
B.    Equipment closet
C.    Demarcation point
D.    Intermediate distribution frame

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 761
A business with a point-to-point fiber-optic connection is suddenly unable to communicate between locations. A fiber cut is suspected. Which of the following tools should the network technician use to determine the exact location of the cut?

A.    Reflectometer
B.    Cable tester
C.    Loopback tester
D.    Spectrum analyzers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 762
A technician has been asked to diagnose problems with DHCP addressing on a VLAN. The DHCP server responds to pings from the technician’s machine. Which of the following should the technician use to help diagnose the problem?

A.    Packet sniffer
B.    netstat
C.    nslookup
D.    Spectrum analyzer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 763
Which of the following Is an object held within an MIB?

A.    OUI
B.    OTDR
C.    OID
D.    SNMP host
E.    SNMP agent
F.    SNMP trap

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 764
Which of the following allow for higher fault tolerance, availability, and performance across multiple systems? (Choose two.)

A.    Load balancer
B.    Jumbo frames
C.    Clustering
D.    Round robin
E.    TCP offloading

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 765
A network administrator wants to connect to a remote device via SSH. Which of the following layers of the OSI model is the protocol using?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    5
D.    6
E.    7

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 766
A customer wants to set up a guest wireless network for visitors. The customer prefers to not have a password on the network. Which of the following should a technician set up to force guests to provide information before using the network?

A.    Single sign-on
B.    RADIUS
C.    TACACS+
D.    Captive portal

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 767
A network technician notices that switches of the same model have different commands and security features while administering them. Which of the following hardening techniques should the technician perform on a regular schedule to ensure all switches have the same features and security functionality?

A.    Change the default credentials.
B.    Verify the firmware file hash.
C.    Disable unused switch ports.
D.    Apply patches and updates.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 768
A network technician works in a large environment with several thousand users. Due to the needs of the organization, the network manager has asked the technician to design a solution that accommodates the data needs of all the users, while keeping all data on site. Which of the following solutions should the technician Implement?

A.    SaaS
B.    SAN
C.    NAS
D.    laaS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 769
A company is experiencing exponential growth and has hired many new employees. New users are reporting they cannot log into their systems, even though they are on the same network. The technician can see physical connectivity to the network switch along with their MAC addresses. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A.    VLAN routing
B.    Server-based firewall configuration issue
C.    Patch cable type
D.    DHCP scope availability

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 770
A network administrator installed a multilayer switch In a shared closet. The network team will manage the switch remotely via SSH. Which of the following should the network administrator do to harden the switch in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable TACACS+.
B.    Disable HTTP management.
C.    Configure the loopback.
D.    Enable LACP.
E.    Configure IPv6.
F.    Enable port security.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 771
……


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